D&D 3E/3.5 3.5 when are you no longer flat-footed

frankthedm · Oct 10, 2012

Empirate said:
good find!

But a bad ruling! :rant:

It completely FAQ's over the one chance a rogue had to perform a "Reach for the sky!" maneuver.

Once the enemy’s turn has begun, he’s no longer flat-footed (even if your readied action interrupts the first action of his turn).

Even though ready says

The action occurs just before the action that triggers it.

Empirate · Oct 11, 2012

I don't think it's a bad ruling at all. Readied actions must still come in reaction to the triggering condition. If that triggering condition is another creature's action, then that creature must at least have begun its action. Sure, the readied action still completes before the triggering action does - so a spell can be disrupted, for example. But to have a readied action occur in its entirety just before the triggering action even starts is to say "shoo, get outta here!" to causality.

Omegaxicor · Oct 11, 2012

There is a difference between start of your turn and start of your action...

It is readier's turn
It is readier's action

It is target's turn
It is readier's readied action
It is target's action

so the target isn't flat-footed against the readied action

D&D 3E/3.5 3.5 when are you no longer flat-footed

frankthedm

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Empirate

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Omegaxicor

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