I had an interesting discussion the other day with one of my players about something so basic in DND play, I found it hard to convince him of my point due to probably our different understanding of English.
In a session he DM'd, I was playing a cleric wielding a Greatsword two handedly. However, when I was casting a spell, he told me I needed a move action to re-grab the Greatsword afterwards with my second hand.
According to his logic, you needed 1 hand free to cast spells with somatic components (which I don't contest), and a greatsword needs to be wielded 2handed to wield it. (I don;t contest that too.) But then he states that according to RAW, putting a weapon away or sheathing a weapon for the purpose of gaining a free hand to cast was a free action unless I dropped the weapon. In the light of this logic, he was willing to forego the first move action to let go of one hand for casting, but the re-grabbing was a move action in his eyes.
Mind you, this pertains only to the situation where I would still hold the greatsword in my other hand during the casting of a spell, and regrab the weapon afterwards so that I would at least threaten squares around me again and able to AoO if needed.
How can I explain to him that I don;t need any move actions to cast a spell whilst holding on to a Greatsword as a cleric and not having a need to drop the greatsword to do so?
And yes, it's hairsplitting, but sometimes we go there.
In a session he DM'd, I was playing a cleric wielding a Greatsword two handedly. However, when I was casting a spell, he told me I needed a move action to re-grab the Greatsword afterwards with my second hand.
According to his logic, you needed 1 hand free to cast spells with somatic components (which I don't contest), and a greatsword needs to be wielded 2handed to wield it. (I don;t contest that too.) But then he states that according to RAW, putting a weapon away or sheathing a weapon for the purpose of gaining a free hand to cast was a free action unless I dropped the weapon. In the light of this logic, he was willing to forego the first move action to let go of one hand for casting, but the re-grabbing was a move action in his eyes.
Mind you, this pertains only to the situation where I would still hold the greatsword in my other hand during the casting of a spell, and regrab the weapon afterwards so that I would at least threaten squares around me again and able to AoO if needed.
How can I explain to him that I don;t need any move actions to cast a spell whilst holding on to a Greatsword as a cleric and not having a need to drop the greatsword to do so?
And yes, it's hairsplitting, but sometimes we go there.