Versatile Weapons - am I reading it correct?

[Syrio]

A little confusion on the versatile rule:

"Versatile weapons are one-handed, but you can use them two-handed. If you do, you deal an extra 1 point of damage when you roll damage for the
weapon."

How this interacts with effects that apply while you are wielding a two-handed wepon? Does that "you can use them two-handed" mean "it effectively counts as a two-handed weapon since you are using it two-handed" or it means "you use it two-handed, but it's still a one-handed weapon"?

So, for example, can I use Reaping Strike and gain full STR damage on a miss with a longsword wielded with two hands? And what happens with Fighter Weapon Talent? Do I always get a +1 to hit rolls with a versatile weapon or only when using it one-handed or two-handed depending on my choice? (And if the answer is "always", then why bother taking a Greatsword? 1d8+1 and 1d10 give out really similar results, with the advantage that I can use the longsword both 1-h and 2-h).

[Moon-Lancer]

raw i think its unclear. I had read someplace that the designers intended it to effectively be a two handed weapon when wielded with two hands.

I don't have the link or the reference though, But i remember one of the designers, i think it was Andy or James, posted here on enworld about it. sorry i don't have more info.

[candidus_cogitens]

Originally Posted by Moon-Lancer

raw i think its unclear. I had read someplace that the designers intended it to effectively be a two handed weapon when wielded with two hands.

I don't have the link or the reference though, But i remember one of the designers, i think it was Andy or James, posted here on enworld about. sorry i don't have more info.

Moon Lancer's answer sounds logical to me. I would add that the advantage of the greatsword comes into play with powers that deal 2W or 3W.

[Starfox]

My understanding is that a 1-handed weapon remains a 1-handed weapon even when used in two hands. A bastard sword does 1d10+1 in two hands wile a greatsword does 1d10, but the greatsword benefits more from certain feats and abilities that favor 2-handed weapons.

[Black Knight Irios]

I hope that a versatile 1h weapon wielded with two hands is treated as a 2h weapon.
And I would rule that way in games I dm.

But by RAW, I think it's still unclear.

EDIT:

Originally Posted by ENWiki

Fighter:p.76; Fighter Weapon Talent

Q1: A human fighter chooses one-handed weapons as his Fighter Weapon Talent. If he uses a longsword in both hands, does he still get the +1 bonus to hit?
Q2: A human fighter chooses two-handed weapons as her Fighter Weapon Talent. If she uses a longsword in both hands, does she still get the +1 bonus to hit?
Q3: A halfling fighter chooses one-handed weapons as his Fighter Weapon Talent. If he uses a longsword (in both hands necessarily since he is a halfling), does he still get the +1 bonus to hit?
Q4: A halfling fighter chooses two-handed weapons as her Fighter Weapon Talent. If she uses a longsword (in both hands necessarily since she is a halfling), does she still get the +1 bonus to hit?
A1: Yes.
A2: No.
A3: Yes.
A4: No.

After reading this it seems clear that a 1h versatile weapon wielded with two hands still counts as a 1h weapon.

[Mahali]

Versatile weapons are one-handed. When using them two-handed who get the +1 damage (unless you're a halfling) and all your one-handed feats/abilities apply.
You do not get the additional damage from Power Attack either, because it's a one-handed weapon.

[Obryn]

Originally Posted by Starfox

My understanding is that a 1-handed weapon remains a 1-handed weapon even when used in two hands. A bastard sword does 1d10+1 in two hands wile a greatsword does 1d10, but the greatsword benefits more from certain feats and abilities that favor 2-handed weapons.

This is my understanding as well.

It also means bastard swords aren't 100% better than greatswords.

-O