tomBitonti
Hero
Heh. That is similar to the "homosexuals aren't discriminated because they can marry people of the oppiste gender" argument.
I was wondering about this. The question may seem silly, but how does it actually working legally?
That is, couples are married. But rights are individual. Does that change when going from couple to individual to mean "a person has a right to marry" or "a person has a right to be married to", with the other person unspecified? And, how is "having the right to marry a person of the opposite gender" differentiated from "having the right to marry a person of any gender"?
In the same space, is discrimination based on sexuality or gender? Those are, of course, related, but they aren't the same thing. For example, a person might marry another so to lend legitimacy to a child, while having no actual romantic interest in their partner. Legally, I'm not aware of a requirement that partners consummate the marriage. That is a religious requirement. If I look a legal marriage as a specific contract which bundles a number of agreements, and not distinguish the contact from contracts in general, then the discrimination seems to be a gender based one. By analogy, if the government is seeking bids for a construction project, the selection process must not discriminate based on gender.
Thx!
TomB