Artoomis
First Post
We've already made our in-game ruling, but I'd like your opinions.
Knowing that:
1. The weapon involved is a frost whip ("...A frost weapon deals an extra 1d6 points of cold damage on a successful hit...")
2. Trip starts with a melee touch attack.
If one hits with the melee touch attack, does the extra damage (1d6 of cold damage, in this case) happen?
Pro: It's an attack and you hit, right?
Con: You do no damage, so you do no extra damage.
So, what's the right answer per the RAW? Having answered that, what do you think the right answer SHOULD be?
I'll chime in with my opinion and what our in-game ruling was later, after getting some answers - I don't want to prejudice anyone one way or the other.
EDIT: Okay, to eliminate the whole real vs. subdual damage part it would help to know that this whip has admantine worked into the whip and deals real damage (it's a legendary weapon, but never mind that).
The fact that this is a whip is less important that the fact that it is a tripping weapon.
Knowing that:
1. The weapon involved is a frost whip ("...A frost weapon deals an extra 1d6 points of cold damage on a successful hit...")
2. Trip starts with a melee touch attack.
If one hits with the melee touch attack, does the extra damage (1d6 of cold damage, in this case) happen?
Pro: It's an attack and you hit, right?
Con: You do no damage, so you do no extra damage.
So, what's the right answer per the RAW? Having answered that, what do you think the right answer SHOULD be?
I'll chime in with my opinion and what our in-game ruling was later, after getting some answers - I don't want to prejudice anyone one way or the other.
EDIT: Okay, to eliminate the whole real vs. subdual damage part it would help to know that this whip has admantine worked into the whip and deals real damage (it's a legendary weapon, but never mind that).
The fact that this is a whip is less important that the fact that it is a tripping weapon.
Last edited: