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My Paladin killed a child molester (and now my DM wants to take away my powers!)
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<blockquote data-quote="Carpe DM" data-source="post: 1565742" data-attributes="member: 677"><p>An excellent discussion. I will add to it, I hope, rather than repeat the many excellent points made so far.</p><p></p><p>The paladin acted neither lawlessly nor evilly, and thus retains his powers.</p><p></p><p>I think that people are right to distinguish Medieval Law from Modern Law. Yet the distinction does not create a difference. Both societies permitted the Paladin's actions here:</p><p></p><p>1. Lethal force is, in modern societies, authorized to prevent rape.</p><p></p><p>2. A party is authorized to use lethal force on behalf of someone who cannot, IF that person is authorized to use lethal force.</p><p></p><p>A. Lethal force is, in medieval societies, authorized to prevent rape. In fact, lethal force was permitted to oppose far lesser crimes, including theft.</p><p></p><p>B. Nobles and (to some extent) Knights in medieval societies were possessed of the Low Justice and the High. The killing of a commoner was lawful on the facts as the Paladin knew them. This presumes the Paladin was part of a church hierarchy or knightly order.</p><p></p><p>Under the facts as given, the paladin's acts were in fact lawful, no matter the temporal context. Perhaps people were not aware of the modern legality of lethal force on behalf of a third party, but we can put that to rest now.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Carpe DM, post: 1565742, member: 677"] An excellent discussion. I will add to it, I hope, rather than repeat the many excellent points made so far. The paladin acted neither lawlessly nor evilly, and thus retains his powers. I think that people are right to distinguish Medieval Law from Modern Law. Yet the distinction does not create a difference. Both societies permitted the Paladin's actions here: 1. Lethal force is, in modern societies, authorized to prevent rape. 2. A party is authorized to use lethal force on behalf of someone who cannot, IF that person is authorized to use lethal force. A. Lethal force is, in medieval societies, authorized to prevent rape. In fact, lethal force was permitted to oppose far lesser crimes, including theft. B. Nobles and (to some extent) Knights in medieval societies were possessed of the Low Justice and the High. The killing of a commoner was lawful on the facts as the Paladin knew them. This presumes the Paladin was part of a church hierarchy or knightly order. Under the facts as given, the paladin's acts were in fact lawful, no matter the temporal context. Perhaps people were not aware of the modern legality of lethal force on behalf of a third party, but we can put that to rest now. [/QUOTE]
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