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Ready action gamebreaking situations
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<blockquote data-quote="Man in the Funny Hat" data-source="post: 6749178" data-attributes="member: 32740"><p>Well... pretty much. It's just that according to what you're saying there, if B moves adjacent to A and takes a total defense standard action, then it's A's turn. It would be silly for A to READY an action with the intended result being an attack on B. B is RIGHT THERE. A should just attack him. He doesn't need to wait for the next round when B is going to actually go full-attack. Both accomplish the same thing - A attacking B before B's next attack. Otherwise my original reply still holds:</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>The fear and confusion that people have always had about this sort of situation is they seem to think that a clever player can use these rules to continually attack and then step out of reach of an opponent rendering the opponent unable to counterattack by those same rules. They think that after A takes a 5' step back out of reach that B is FORCED to stand idle, unable to take any effective action because he MUST do what he declared he was doing - which triggered A's readied action. If B DOESN'T do that action, then A's readied action would never have been triggered - but by that same logic if B CANNOT do that action anymore because A is now out of reach and B can no longer close the remaining distance then A's readied action CANNOT be triggered because the intended attack never takes place.</p><p></p><p>Really, there's nothing that A does which prevents B from simply finishing what he started - moving next to A and attacking - and the SRD notes that the interrupted character simply then can resume what he started. Only if B is out of movement to complete his action, or something else about what A did completely prevents B from acting is B going to be unable to act. B can charge instead if he needs the extra movement. He can throw something instead. He can... attack a different target that he may be next to. WHATEVER. B is not FORCED to do only what he set out to do before A interrupted it, and do no more, no less, or anything OTHER than that initially intended action. THAT's where it really falls apart. Players want ALL the advantage of preemptive action in 3E, not a single disadvantage, and want immunity from common sense on top of it. So arguments on this subject have nearly always taken the form of somebody wanting to twist the interpretations to have it all and looking for every ILLOGICAL reason for the rules to say he can get away with it.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Man in the Funny Hat, post: 6749178, member: 32740"] Well... pretty much. It's just that according to what you're saying there, if B moves adjacent to A and takes a total defense standard action, then it's A's turn. It would be silly for A to READY an action with the intended result being an attack on B. B is RIGHT THERE. A should just attack him. He doesn't need to wait for the next round when B is going to actually go full-attack. Both accomplish the same thing - A attacking B before B's next attack. Otherwise my original reply still holds: The fear and confusion that people have always had about this sort of situation is they seem to think that a clever player can use these rules to continually attack and then step out of reach of an opponent rendering the opponent unable to counterattack by those same rules. They think that after A takes a 5' step back out of reach that B is FORCED to stand idle, unable to take any effective action because he MUST do what he declared he was doing - which triggered A's readied action. If B DOESN'T do that action, then A's readied action would never have been triggered - but by that same logic if B CANNOT do that action anymore because A is now out of reach and B can no longer close the remaining distance then A's readied action CANNOT be triggered because the intended attack never takes place. Really, there's nothing that A does which prevents B from simply finishing what he started - moving next to A and attacking - and the SRD notes that the interrupted character simply then can resume what he started. Only if B is out of movement to complete his action, or something else about what A did completely prevents B from acting is B going to be unable to act. B can charge instead if he needs the extra movement. He can throw something instead. He can... attack a different target that he may be next to. WHATEVER. B is not FORCED to do only what he set out to do before A interrupted it, and do no more, no less, or anything OTHER than that initially intended action. THAT's where it really falls apart. Players want ALL the advantage of preemptive action in 3E, not a single disadvantage, and want immunity from common sense on top of it. So arguments on this subject have nearly always taken the form of somebody wanting to twist the interpretations to have it all and looking for every ILLOGICAL reason for the rules to say he can get away with it. [/QUOTE]
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