ForumFerret
Explorer
Here's the situation:
An artificer imbues items with two spells: Call Lightning, then Invisibility Sphere. He activates Call Lightning, and then activates the invisibility sphere. His next actions are to call down the lightning bolts while invisible.
The artificer's player maintains that activating the lightning bolts of the Call Lightning spell is an indirect attack and does not cause his Invisibility Sphere to fail.
The other folks involved in the discussion at the moment believe that causing the lightning bolts to fire in the Call Lightning spell are a direct attack action and would cause the Invisibilty Sphere to fail.
Our DM is currently out of town and cannot rule on this, so we put it to the forum as I think two of the guys are going to stab each other in the face .
I put it forth to you, fellow forum-goers. What do you think?
An artificer imbues items with two spells: Call Lightning, then Invisibility Sphere. He activates Call Lightning, and then activates the invisibility sphere. His next actions are to call down the lightning bolts while invisible.
The artificer's player maintains that activating the lightning bolts of the Call Lightning spell is an indirect attack and does not cause his Invisibility Sphere to fail.
The other folks involved in the discussion at the moment believe that causing the lightning bolts to fire in the Call Lightning spell are a direct attack action and would cause the Invisibilty Sphere to fail.
Our DM is currently out of town and cannot rule on this, so we put it to the forum as I think two of the guys are going to stab each other in the face .
I put it forth to you, fellow forum-goers. What do you think?