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Newbie Q: Magic Item Markup

Grandpa

First Post
P.155 of the DMG:
For example, roll 1d6 as usual, but a 1 means the item is available for 10 percent below the base price, a 2 means it's available for the base price, and 3-6 means a 10 percent to 40 percent markup.
Where are the "usual" rules for randomizing magic item markup located? I don't recall reading them anywhere in the PHB or DMG to this point. If this is an editing error, I'm comfortable determining either the rules or the markup myself, but I prefer understanding the rules as written before improvising, whenever possible.

Thanks!
 

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DracoSuave

First Post
P.155 of the DMG:

Where are the "usual" rules for randomizing magic item markup located? I don't recall reading them anywhere in the PHB or DMG to this point. If this is an editing error, I'm comfortable determining either the rules or the markup myself, but I prefer understanding the rules as written before improvising, whenever possible.

Thanks!

It's on the same page.

Read the entire section., and the quoth paragraph comes into proper context.
 

Grandpa

First Post
Read the entire section., and the quoth paragraph comes into proper context.
Thanks for the speedy reply, DS. I see the 10-40% markup reference, but since it alludes to removing or altering a "usual" 1d6 markup rule, I presume an official rule exists. E.g., 1: 10%, 2: 20%, 3: 30%, 4-6: 40%. Am I still overlooking something, or does the example refer to a hypothetical rule of my own invention?

Again, a minor thing; I just like having the official rules, regardless of how I utilize them. Thanks again.
 

CovertOps

First Post
Thanks for the speedy reply, DS. I see the 10-40% markup reference, but since it alludes to removing or altering a "usual" 1d6 markup rule, I presume an official rule exists. E.g., 1: 10%, 2: 20%, 3: 30%, 4-6: 40%. Am I still overlooking something, or does the example refer to a hypothetical rule of my own invention?

Again, a minor thing; I just like having the official rules, regardless of how I utilize them. Thanks again.

I'd say you just missed the meaning in the quoted section:
1: 10% below
2: regular price
3: 10% above
4: 20% above
5: 30% above
6: 40% above

Hence, 3-6 is 10-40% above base price.
 

Grydan

First Post
DracoSuave, CovertOps, I've got to say I'm with Grandpa here.

The paragraph certainly does explain a way of figuring out mark-up, Draco, but it is presented as an alternate way to the "usual" way. The "usual" way is nowhere in evidence.

Covert, Grandpa isn't misinterpreting the method presented in the quoted section, he's presenting a hypothetical "usual" method.

As far as I can tell, Grandpa, it is referring to something that doesn't appear anywhere. It wouldn't be the only place that the books refer to rules that don't actually exist.
 

cpendlet

First Post
I just assumed that the "usual" method was just to use the book price?
I always do this when I DM just to keep things simple (I don't want to dig out a calculator when someone wants to buy something).
 

I believe the PHB says that the purchase price of an item is base price plus 10-40%. It doesn't give a specific mechanic for how to determine the %, I guess they assume it's really mostly a DM determination or you'll just roll a d4 etc.
 

Grydan

First Post
cpendlet, the Player's Handbook says (page 224) that "Prices shown are the base market price for the items. The actual cost to purchase a magic item depends on supply and demand and might be 10 to 40 percent more than the base market price."

So the book seems to assume that the "usual" method involves at least a possibility of a markup.

The wording of the paragraph Grandpa quoted from the DMG implies a system that neither of us has managed to actually find anywhere. As it says to "...roll a d6 as usual, but a 1 means the item is available for 10% below the base price...". So "usual" involves rolling a d6, without the possibility of a markdown (otherwise, why use "but", if not to contrast with the usual method?).

Most of the DMs I've played with have ignored the markup entirely, as you do. It is indeed faster and simpler. My method, so far, has simply been to never have magic items for sale, avoiding the issue altogether. Before noticing the reference to the d6 being involved in the usual method, I figured that if it ever came up, I'd roll a d4, as it provides the most obvious method for randomly determining a 10-40% markup.
 

DracoSuave

First Post
DracoSuave, CovertOps, I've got to say I'm with Grandpa here.

The paragraph certainly does explain a way of figuring out mark-up, Draco, but it is presented as an alternate way to the "usual" way. The "usual" way is nowhere in evidence.

Ugh.

DMG:

Characters can use the monetary treasure they find, as well as the gold from selling items, to acquire new magic items. They can’t make items above their level, and can’t often afford items more than a few levels above theirs. It’s to their benefit to use the Enchant Magic Item ritual for items of their level or lower, rather than buying these items from merchants, agents, or fences, because of the 10–40 percent markup over items’ value that these sellers charge.

PHB:

Prices shown are the base market price for the items. The actual cost to purchase a magic item depends on supply and demand and might be 10 to 40 percent more than the base market price.

The 1d6 as usual is a typo. But, if you insist on rolling one, use the following table.

1: 10% mark up
2: 20% mark up
3: 30% mark up
4: 40% mark up
5-6: Reroll the die and secretly ponder why you didn't roll a 1d4 instead.
 


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