I am a long term 3.0 - 3.5 DM just breaking into 4th edition with a group composed of both long term experienced players and total new players.
I have a player who is debating my concept of Opportunity Attacks and after reading and reading I still do not agree with his view. I hate to penalize a good player if I am wrong (and it is always a distinct possiblity) so I was hoping I could get some perspectives here.
The PHB says an attack of opportunity is provoked whenever an "enemy leaves a square adjacent to you". The Opportunity Action interrupts target's action and "takes place before the target finishes its action". It also says, " You can't make an opportunity attack unless you are able to make a melee attack".
The argument is this. My player feels that when you are moving directly out of a threatened square but not into another threatened square you do not provoke. He thinks this because once you end that 5 foot movement you are no longer in a threatened area and thus no melee attack is possible. I interperate the text to mean that "as" you move they get a swipe at you so they still have reach.
He is going to show me something from the monster manuel he feels underscores his point about how this works and he has drawn me diagrams. We are sceduled to go over it before the next game because I don't allow rules debates during game session. Do any of you have helpful perspectives or info on this for me? I am most interested in any material that may suggest I am interpreting the rule wrong.
I have a player who is debating my concept of Opportunity Attacks and after reading and reading I still do not agree with his view. I hate to penalize a good player if I am wrong (and it is always a distinct possiblity) so I was hoping I could get some perspectives here.
The PHB says an attack of opportunity is provoked whenever an "enemy leaves a square adjacent to you". The Opportunity Action interrupts target's action and "takes place before the target finishes its action". It also says, " You can't make an opportunity attack unless you are able to make a melee attack".
The argument is this. My player feels that when you are moving directly out of a threatened square but not into another threatened square you do not provoke. He thinks this because once you end that 5 foot movement you are no longer in a threatened area and thus no melee attack is possible. I interperate the text to mean that "as" you move they get a swipe at you so they still have reach.
He is going to show me something from the monster manuel he feels underscores his point about how this works and he has drawn me diagrams. We are sceduled to go over it before the next game because I don't allow rules debates during game session. Do any of you have helpful perspectives or info on this for me? I am most interested in any material that may suggest I am interpreting the rule wrong.