For nearly every rules question I post here on a topic I view to be at least somewhat ambiguous, the instant response is to take the narrowest, most exclusive interpretation of the rules.
Why is that?
This occurs mostly when one class' archetype borrows a feature from another class, and the rules don't perfectly correlate. Most often the response is that the archetype can't benefit anything that uses terminology that doesn't refer to its own class, regardless of how similar they are.
One such example, in Pathfinder the Oracle is a Spontaneous Divine spellcaster, but an archetype (Spirit Guide, choosing the Lore Spirit, using the Arcane Enlightenment Hex) which states,
"The shaman can add a number of spells from the sorcerer/wizard spell list equal to her Charisma modifier (minimum 1) to the list of shaman spells she can prepare."
People don't seem to have a problem with subbing in "Oracle" for "Shaman" in the rule, but they'll say that the Oracle can't benefit from this because the Oracle's spells aren't prepared.
I believe it is as (if not more) viable to assert that the rule does apply, and that the spells added are "prepared" similarly to how an Arcanist's spells are prepared, in that they are added to the list of spells known for the day, but not assigned to specific spell slots.
Is there any objective problem with the way I'm looking at this?
Is there any objective, rules-based reason why the responses to my questions are so narrow and exclusive in their interpretation?
Why is that?
This occurs mostly when one class' archetype borrows a feature from another class, and the rules don't perfectly correlate. Most often the response is that the archetype can't benefit anything that uses terminology that doesn't refer to its own class, regardless of how similar they are.
One such example, in Pathfinder the Oracle is a Spontaneous Divine spellcaster, but an archetype (Spirit Guide, choosing the Lore Spirit, using the Arcane Enlightenment Hex) which states,
"The shaman can add a number of spells from the sorcerer/wizard spell list equal to her Charisma modifier (minimum 1) to the list of shaman spells she can prepare."
People don't seem to have a problem with subbing in "Oracle" for "Shaman" in the rule, but they'll say that the Oracle can't benefit from this because the Oracle's spells aren't prepared.
I believe it is as (if not more) viable to assert that the rule does apply, and that the spells added are "prepared" similarly to how an Arcanist's spells are prepared, in that they are added to the list of spells known for the day, but not assigned to specific spell slots.
Is there any objective problem with the way I'm looking at this?
Is there any objective, rules-based reason why the responses to my questions are so narrow and exclusive in their interpretation?
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