Mark Chance
Boingy! Boingy!
I have a question regarding this block of text:
Does this method result in an equal distribution of numbers, or does it result in a sort of bell curve in which certain results are more likely to occur than others?
We true Old School Gamers remember the days when we were lucky to have all the polyhedral dice we needed. I remember shaking up a small plastic cup full of numbered chits and drawing one at random to determine, say, a number between 1 and 20 because we didn't have a d20. Later on, we saved up enough money get a d10 (which, I'm guessing, cost half as much as a d20). We could then roll 1d6 and 1d10 together. If the d6 came up 4 through 6, we added 10 to the d10 result. Tada! A random number between 1 and 20.
You can do basically the same thing to roll 1d24. Toss at the same time 1d6 and 1d12. If the d6 comes up 4, 5, or 6, add 12 to the d12 result. For example, if I roll a 10 and a 3, the result equals 10. If I roll a 10 and a 5, the result equals 22.
You can do basically the same thing to roll 1d24. Toss at the same time 1d6 and 1d12. If the d6 comes up 4, 5, or 6, add 12 to the d12 result. For example, if I roll a 10 and a 3, the result equals 10. If I roll a 10 and a 5, the result equals 22.
Does this method result in an equal distribution of numbers, or does it result in a sort of bell curve in which certain results are more likely to occur than others?