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Second-Guessing Myself: Allow Teleporting While Falling?

Deltran

First Post
I made a call as DM in a game of mine, and the player is arguing it. Nothing new, but this player is particularly upset about it (as much so as a normal person would be anyway). This is causing me to reconsider a little. So I ask you - am I crazy to have made this call:

In a recent game, the players encountered a room that had (simplified) a portal to the elemental plane of air at the bottom of a chasm. The effect this had was if someone fell in, they would get pushed back to the ledge they fell from and suffer 1d10 damage.

There was a narrow ledge allowing progress to the other side of the chasm, but the party was under attack from creatures on the other side. The assassin in the group had his sights on a creature, and tried to jump the pit.

He rolled 2 squares short. He then told me of his intention to use an encounter attack power that would let him teleport up to 5 squares before the attack (Inescapable Shadow). I said if he could pass a saving throw I'd allow it. He rolled and failed, so I said he 'fell' and was put back onto the originating ledge.


As a DM, what would you rule in that situation? As a PC, what would you hope the ruling was in that situation?
 

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Smurtis

First Post
If it was his intention, then he needed to ready his standard action with the trigger, "Once i move into range, i use my standard action; inescapable Shadow"... that would work, imo... so he would jump, get close enough to allow the trigger to go off (trigger is a move action) and then make his teleport to then continue his attack... naturally, if he didnt get in range, he would lose his standard action for the round... which is the fall back to all "ready my action" situation.

Without readying his action, he would have to wait until his move action is resolved, which includes him being bounced back and taking damage, as you noted.

Your solution was more than fair, imo... but to avoid it again, and to follow RAW, have him declare readying his action for a specific trigger.
 


What sort of action was the teleport? If a move, hell no (other than with an action point). If a standard, likewise. If a free action then why not?

Edit: Of course I should allow it whatever the rules say. It's a cool combination (although I'd require some form of roll). Doesn't mean my instincts are always right...
 
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If it was his intention, then he needed to ready his standard action with the trigger, "Once i move into range, i use my standard action; inescapable Shadow"... that would work, imo... so he would jump, get close enough to allow the trigger to go off (trigger is a move action) and then make his teleport to then continue his attack... naturally, if he didnt get in range, he would lose his standard action for the round... which is the fall back to all "ready my action" situation.

Without readying his action, he would have to wait until his move action is resolved, which includes him being bounced back and taking damage, as you noted.

Your solution was more than fair, imo... but to avoid it again, and to follow RAW, have him declare readying his action for a specific trigger.
You can´t hold your action for something that happens on your turn. He could ahve just announced, and said:

"I jump, and as soon as I am in range (which could mean midair) i teleport attack." No need to ready or hold an action...
 


ThirdWizard

First Post
If it was his intention, then he needed to ready his standard action with the trigger

I think that's overly complicating it. Readying is a standard action anyway, so there's no reason to say you can take a standard to ready, but not to use an attack.

I would have just let him do it.
 

delericho

Legend
Depends on two things.

If the player said, "I'm going to jump, and as soon as I'm in range I'll use Inescapable Shadow", then I'd allow his action (no save required).

If Inescapable Shadow was an Immediate Interrupt, I would allow his action (no save required).

If, however, the player said, "I'm going to jump the chasm", then he failed, and then declared he would use Inescapable Shadow, I would not allow the action (no save allowed). Basically, he's trying to modify his action after it has been declared, and is trying for a "do-over", which I simply don't allow.

I feel you were generous to allow the save.
 

Nullzone

Explorer
I'd allow it without the save, myself.

Anyone who's a trained acrobat/athlete and falls short of a jump by anything more than a few inches knows they're going to miss before they get there. Then they'll look for other options to avoid whatever adverse consequence awaits. If I had the ability to teleport myself instantly from A to B and I had missed a jump, you bet your ass I'll be using that ability.

Your ruling wasn't unreasonable though. Situations like that are a little abstract and it's easy to look at it as "cheesy" or "breaking" your mechanic. Every game and every DM is different.

Something you can remind people of for the future when falls are involved is that they can reduce the damage with an Acrobatics check. Result/2 mod 10 is how much damage you subtract from the fall. For just a 1d10 this can often negate all of it.
 

Depends on two things.

If the player said, "I'm going to jump, and as soon as I'm in range I'll use Inescapable Shadow", then I'd allow his action (no save required).

If Inescapable Shadow was an Immediate Interrupt, I would allow his action (no save required).

If, however, the player said, "I'm going to jump the chasm", then he failed, and then declared he would use Inescapable Shadow, I would not allow the action (no save allowed). Basically, he's trying to modify his action after it has been declared, and is trying for a "do-over", which I simply don't allow.

I feel you were generous to allow the save.
just a reminder:

per raw, you could NOT use the teleport if it was an immediate (interrupt) action. You can´t take interrupt actions on your turn.
 

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