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General Tabletop Discussion
D&D Older Editions
2e, the most lethal edition?
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<blockquote data-quote="GreyLord" data-source="post: 7638702" data-attributes="member: 4348"><p>I think most of the discussion now isn't with Sacrosanct, but others. </p><p></p><p>I brought up the flaw in the discussion and was willing to listen to how they thought 2e was more lethal when it was using what I see as a more correct interpretation.</p><p></p><p>Instead of actually addressing that...they figured to try to argue that their interpretation was the ONLY correct interpretation (OH REALLY...this is AD&D 1e we are talking about, and this is the 1e DMG especially....something that was a core branch that the OSR was born around...and the OSR isn't really from those who felt the DMG was full of mandatory rules...it's rulings...not rules).</p><p></p><p>Short to say...I have not been convinced of their argument. If their argument relies entirely on their own personal interpretation of a rule...than I'd say, few as they have been, the 1e guys really made their point FAR better than others thus far.</p><p></p><p>Not that I'm convinced (I also still play 2e, and as such my PERSONAL experience has shown it can be rather lethal) that 1e was more lethal, but 2e definitely seems LESS lethal to me NOW compared to 1e than when I first stumbled on the thread (the one who pointed out other factors in a short post of things 2e had that made it less lethal was actually a pretty good argument, some of which I brought up briefly but of course, of those arguing for 2e lethality wants to address anything other than trying to ensure that their interpretation of the ZHP rule not only has to be mandatory for AD&D [which is hilarious to anyone who actually played during that period, almost no one used that rule, almost everyone had PC's die at 0 HP normally unless the DM had another plan] but has to have been how it is used and interpreted by EVERYONE else (ignoring the obvious elephant in the room that, I am part of that everyone else and obviously DO NOT interpret it the same way).</p><p></p><p>So...yeah...not convinced at all. In fact, probably more convinced they are not correct. Not only was my thought not really addressed, instead of actually trying to bolster the argument in 2e's favor, post were spent trying to convince me that they were right (once again, about AD&D 1e...anyone see the hilarious point of that) and they ONLY had the right interpretation of a rule and everyone played by their interpretation (which again, most of those who actually LIVED and PLAYED in the AD&D 1e era KNOWS that isn't true). There are a host of different ways games were run. IF anything, it seems to prove that the game really DOES depend on how the DM rules and runs their game rather than how people are trying to present it in this thread that are trying to say 2e was more lethal...period.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="GreyLord, post: 7638702, member: 4348"] I think most of the discussion now isn't with Sacrosanct, but others. I brought up the flaw in the discussion and was willing to listen to how they thought 2e was more lethal when it was using what I see as a more correct interpretation. Instead of actually addressing that...they figured to try to argue that their interpretation was the ONLY correct interpretation (OH REALLY...this is AD&D 1e we are talking about, and this is the 1e DMG especially....something that was a core branch that the OSR was born around...and the OSR isn't really from those who felt the DMG was full of mandatory rules...it's rulings...not rules). Short to say...I have not been convinced of their argument. If their argument relies entirely on their own personal interpretation of a rule...than I'd say, few as they have been, the 1e guys really made their point FAR better than others thus far. Not that I'm convinced (I also still play 2e, and as such my PERSONAL experience has shown it can be rather lethal) that 1e was more lethal, but 2e definitely seems LESS lethal to me NOW compared to 1e than when I first stumbled on the thread (the one who pointed out other factors in a short post of things 2e had that made it less lethal was actually a pretty good argument, some of which I brought up briefly but of course, of those arguing for 2e lethality wants to address anything other than trying to ensure that their interpretation of the ZHP rule not only has to be mandatory for AD&D [which is hilarious to anyone who actually played during that period, almost no one used that rule, almost everyone had PC's die at 0 HP normally unless the DM had another plan] but has to have been how it is used and interpreted by EVERYONE else (ignoring the obvious elephant in the room that, I am part of that everyone else and obviously DO NOT interpret it the same way). So...yeah...not convinced at all. In fact, probably more convinced they are not correct. Not only was my thought not really addressed, instead of actually trying to bolster the argument in 2e's favor, post were spent trying to convince me that they were right (once again, about AD&D 1e...anyone see the hilarious point of that) and they ONLY had the right interpretation of a rule and everyone played by their interpretation (which again, most of those who actually LIVED and PLAYED in the AD&D 1e era KNOWS that isn't true). There are a host of different ways games were run. IF anything, it seems to prove that the game really DOES depend on how the DM rules and runs their game rather than how people are trying to present it in this thread that are trying to say 2e was more lethal...period. [/QUOTE]
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