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Archery Full Round Attack
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<blockquote data-quote="Water Bob" data-source="post: 5611697" data-attributes="member: 92305"><p>What confuses me is why people consistently think that I want something particular with these threads.</p><p> </p><p>I have a questioning mind. I'm new to the 3.5 game. I'm questioning the rules. </p><p> </p><p>It's nothing more sinister than that.</p><p> </p><p>I'm just looking for discussion on why a rule is the way it is. This leads to better understanding of the rule.</p><p> </p><p>Many people assume that my game is a miss-mash of House Rules. I'm using exactly one House Rule in my game (and that's a simple die throw to occasionally change nonlethal damage to lethal damage because I think it should be possible to beat somebody to death).</p><p> </p><p>All other rules I use are completely by the book, RAW.</p><p> </p><p>This forum is a place to discuss all things RPG. I start threads to discuss rules.</p><p> </p><p>Why is that confusing?</p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p> </p><p>EDIT: Forget rules for a moment. Picture two warriors out in a field. One has two hand axes, one in each hand, throwing at a tree. The other has a bow with two arrows in his quiver. The warrior with the hand axes is as skilled with his axes as the archer is with is bow.</p><p> </p><p>Range for each warrior is proportional to the weapon (that is, it's longer to the archer's tree than it is to the tree for the axeman).</p><p> </p><p><span style="color: blue">The question is: Is it likely that both warriors can hit their targets about the same amount of times given an hour throwing/shooting?</span></p><p> </p><p>The game says that the archer will hit about half as often as the axeman. </p><p> </p><p>Is that a good rule? Does that reflect reality? I'm not so sure.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Water Bob, post: 5611697, member: 92305"] What confuses me is why people consistently think that I want something particular with these threads. I have a questioning mind. I'm new to the 3.5 game. I'm questioning the rules. It's nothing more sinister than that. I'm just looking for discussion on why a rule is the way it is. This leads to better understanding of the rule. Many people assume that my game is a miss-mash of House Rules. I'm using exactly one House Rule in my game (and that's a simple die throw to occasionally change nonlethal damage to lethal damage because I think it should be possible to beat somebody to death). All other rules I use are completely by the book, RAW. This forum is a place to discuss all things RPG. I start threads to discuss rules. Why is that confusing? EDIT: Forget rules for a moment. Picture two warriors out in a field. One has two hand axes, one in each hand, throwing at a tree. The other has a bow with two arrows in his quiver. The warrior with the hand axes is as skilled with his axes as the archer is with is bow. Range for each warrior is proportional to the weapon (that is, it's longer to the archer's tree than it is to the tree for the axeman). [COLOR=blue]The question is: Is it likely that both warriors can hit their targets about the same amount of times given an hour throwing/shooting?[/COLOR] The game says that the archer will hit about half as often as the axeman. Is that a good rule? Does that reflect reality? I'm not so sure. [/QUOTE]
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