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<blockquote data-quote="Desdichado" data-source="post: 490615" data-attributes="member: 2205"><p>Saruman also does so -- apparently -- he has devilry of some sort which broaches the walls of Helm's Deep, for instance. Also, as I stated, your division of kinetic and non-kinetic magic is completely arbitrary and unsupported by any textual reference whatsoever, so I'm certainly not supporting any conclusions you draw about it whatsoever. There are other sorcerors mentioned in the appendices, primarily, including amongst the hill-men of Rhudaur (non-Numenoreans) and the Dunlendings. The Pukel-men also seem to have magic powers, as in <em>Unfinished Tales</em> in "The Faithful Stone" which mentions a number of abilities of the First Age woses that no man ever had. In addition, if you read the "Myths Transformed" essays Tolkien wrote (appearing in print in <em>Morgoth's Ring</em>) you'd also see all kinds of magic described by Tolkien done by races that you deem completely unable to perform magic. So please, don't try to pigeonhole anything I wrote into your pet specious theory -- it really doesn't work.</p><p></p><p>Yes, it's when they are getting the boats, rope, cloaks, etc. in Lorien on their way back out to the River. Galadriel herself also expresses some confusion (and amusement, in my opinion) that Frodo and Sam call her "Art" and the deceits of the Enemy magic, even though to her they are so clearly different that labelling them the same thing is patently ridiculous. That does not, however, build any support for your theory that this nebulous "kinetic magic" only comes from Ringbearers. In fact, since Galadriel is herself a ringbearer, it makes your theory fall flat (again.)</p><p></p><p>The Celtic Twilight? Unless you mean that in some metaphoric sense, that's absolutely untrue. The Anglo-Saxon twilight (to be replaced by a Norman English world) might make some sense, but a Celtic Twilight does not. British history also has little to do the work, and in fact, Tolkien specifically denies any such connection. Catholicism, on the other hand, played an integral role in the creation, and it actually became more and more integral over the years. If you read the early mythology in <em>The Book(s) of Lost Tales</em> you get a real mythology/faery tale treatment of the material, but as you progress towards the latest versions of the myths that appear in <em>The War of the Jewels</em> and <em>Morgoth's Ring</em> the myths became increasingly and more overtly and obviously compatible with Tolkien's Catholic faith. The bastardized product that is the current printed <em>Silmarillion</em>, while still a great read (imo) is a product that even Christopher Tolkien regretted publishing and compiling, which is why he brought out the untouched works complete with notes on when and why the various parts were written and how they relate to earlier and later forms of the myth in the <em>History of Middle-earth</em> series. That's where you really want to go to delve into the themes with which Tolkien embued his work.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Desdichado, post: 490615, member: 2205"] Saruman also does so -- apparently -- he has devilry of some sort which broaches the walls of Helm's Deep, for instance. Also, as I stated, your division of kinetic and non-kinetic magic is completely arbitrary and unsupported by any textual reference whatsoever, so I'm certainly not supporting any conclusions you draw about it whatsoever. There are other sorcerors mentioned in the appendices, primarily, including amongst the hill-men of Rhudaur (non-Numenoreans) and the Dunlendings. The Pukel-men also seem to have magic powers, as in [i]Unfinished Tales[/i] in "The Faithful Stone" which mentions a number of abilities of the First Age woses that no man ever had. In addition, if you read the "Myths Transformed" essays Tolkien wrote (appearing in print in [i]Morgoth's Ring[/i]) you'd also see all kinds of magic described by Tolkien done by races that you deem completely unable to perform magic. So please, don't try to pigeonhole anything I wrote into your pet specious theory -- it really doesn't work. [b][/b] Yes, it's when they are getting the boats, rope, cloaks, etc. in Lorien on their way back out to the River. Galadriel herself also expresses some confusion (and amusement, in my opinion) that Frodo and Sam call her "Art" and the deceits of the Enemy magic, even though to her they are so clearly different that labelling them the same thing is patently ridiculous. That does not, however, build any support for your theory that this nebulous "kinetic magic" only comes from Ringbearers. In fact, since Galadriel is herself a ringbearer, it makes your theory fall flat (again.) [b][/B] The Celtic Twilight? Unless you mean that in some metaphoric sense, that's absolutely untrue. The Anglo-Saxon twilight (to be replaced by a Norman English world) might make some sense, but a Celtic Twilight does not. British history also has little to do the work, and in fact, Tolkien specifically denies any such connection. Catholicism, on the other hand, played an integral role in the creation, and it actually became more and more integral over the years. If you read the early mythology in [i]The Book(s) of Lost Tales[/i] you get a real mythology/faery tale treatment of the material, but as you progress towards the latest versions of the myths that appear in [i]The War of the Jewels[/i] and [i]Morgoth's Ring[/i] the myths became increasingly and more overtly and obviously compatible with Tolkien's Catholic faith. The bastardized product that is the current printed [i]Silmarillion[/i], while still a great read (imo) is a product that even Christopher Tolkien regretted publishing and compiling, which is why he brought out the untouched works complete with notes on when and why the various parts were written and how they relate to earlier and later forms of the myth in the [i]History of Middle-earth[/i] series. That's where you really want to go to delve into the themes with which Tolkien embued his work. [/QUOTE]
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