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Message: <blockquote data-quote="Baron Von StarBlade" data-source="post: 232368" data-attributes="member: 1522">Note the bolded text in the first paragraph. Would that not be the case when for the second paragraph also. He is still near an enemy so he has the probability of being hit. If the enemy is concerned his ally is going to do something foolish that may endanger him then he should move out of the immediate range of the enemy. Combat in 3E is dynamic, it doesn't matter how a character gets an attack (rather from being hasted and using a partial action as an attack, from an AoO, from your normal sequence in initiative, etc) when you do get to take a swing at someone, if you choose to rather than trip, disarm, sunder, etc. ., it is interpreted all the same. That means if you drop the foe you get the free swing of the cleave. That is how the game is played.     Now I have a scenario that with your interpretation shouldn't work. I have a fighter who is hasted. On his turn he opts to use his move    Note the bolded text in the first paragraph. Would that not be the case when for the second paragraph also. He is still near an enemy so he has the probability of being hit. If the enemy is concerned his ally is going to do something foolish that may endanger him then he should move out of the immediate range of the enemy. Combat in 3E is dynamic, it doesn't matter how a character gets an attack (rather from being hasted and using a partial action as an attack, from an AoO, from your normal sequence in initiative, etc) when you do get to take a swing at someone, if you choose to rather than trip, disarm, sunder, etc. ., it is interpreted all the same. That means if you drop the foe you get the free swing of the cleave. That is how the game is played.     Now I have a scenario that with your interpretation shouldn't work. I have a fighter who is hasted. On his turn he opts to use his move equilivant action to move 30' to a target. With his partial action (from haste) he opts to take a single swing at the target in front of him, and in doing so he kills the target, with the option to take a cleave at any remainding targets. Now with the remainder of his action he readys a Partial Charge to attack the wizard 15' away if he starts to cast a spell.     On the wizards turn he begins to cast a spell. The Fighters condition comes up so he executes a partial charge into the Wizard, which also results in the kill. Therefore if he had cleave he should get a free swing at any target that is within reach of him. However by your interpretation he got an attack out of sequence (even though it was with part of his regular action), so he wouldn't get a cleave attempt.  action to move 30' to a target. With his partial action (from haste) he opts to take a single swing at the target in front of him, and in doing so he kills the target, with the option to take a cleave at any remaining targets. Now with the remainder of his action he readies a Partial Charge to attack the wizard 15' away if he starts to cast a spell.     On the wizards turn he begins to cast a spell. The Fighters condition comes up so he executes a partial charge into the Wizard, which also results in the kill. Therefore if he had cleave he should get a free swing at any target that is within reach of him. However by your interpretation he got an attack out of sequence (even though it was with part of his regular action), so he wouldn't get a cleave attempt.   Yeah I've seen the point that was trying to be  made, I just don't agree with it.  However you seem to have issues grasping the other side of the discussion.</blockquote>

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