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Message: <blockquote data-quote="ECMO3" data-source="post: 9350118" data-attributes="member: 7030563">In the novels, yes he did.  If you are basing it on the movies I could perhaps agree with your position, but in the novels it is clearly magic.Specifically, he used healing magic on Frodo after he was attacked on Weathertop, he later used magic to awaken/resurect Aowyn.Here is the text from these two:"He sat down on the ground, and taking the dagger-hilt laid it on his knees, and he sang over it a slow song in a strange tongue. Then setting it aside, he turned to Frodo and in a soft tone spoke words the others could not catch. From the pouch at his belt he drew out the long leaves of a plant." This is classic D&D magic involving Verbal, Somatic and Material components.Then Aowyn:"I have, maybe, the power to heal her body, and to recall her from the dark valley. But to what she will awake: hope, or forgetfulness, or despair, I do not know. And if to despair, then she will die, unless other healing comes which I cannot bring. Alas! for her deeds have set her among the queens of great renown.Then Aragorn stooped and looked in her face, and it was indeed white as a lily, cold as frost, and hard as graven stone. But he bent and kissed her on the brow, and called her softly, saying:Éowyn Éomund’s daughter, awake! For your enemy has passed away!"   Then she starts breathing and eventually wakes up again.Both of those events are clearly magical.  Aside from this he also has visions after sitting on the Throne before Frodo left and communing with the dead in the area he got the dead Army from.Actually it is the opposite.  According to Tolkien it is "Magica" that comes from Aragorn being descended from Elves.</blockquote>

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