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Message: <blockquote data-quote="Quasqueton" data-source="post: 2481615" data-attributes="member: 3854">Say the PCs are in the middle of a battle. A PC gets hit with a fear effect, fails the save, and flees in terror. When the DM asks, do you scream or cry out anything, the Player says, "No." The PC runs away in silence.Later (maybe much later), the PC is separated from the group for a few minutes. The PC gets hit with a fear effect, fails the save, and flees off somewhere. There's no one around to see the situation, so the Player says the PCs screams in panic (obviously to either warn the others of danger, or to alert them that he is [about to be] lost).Should the DM forbid/prevent the scream, based on precedent set for the character? Is it fair? What if the "silent panic" has happened several times (all when a shout wasn't needed and would have made the PC look "weak")?Say an ambush jumps up and attacks the PCs. A rogue attacks one PC from behind in the surprise round, scoring a hit. When the DM describes the scene as "Horan shouts in pained surprise as the rogue scores a sword thrust from the dark," the Player corrects him saying "Horan wouldn't shout out like that. He's tough."Later (maybe much later), a tentacle reaches out from the dark behind the group and grabs Horan (at the back of the party) by surprise and hauls him up into the dark cave. The Player wants Horan to shout out his surprise (obviously to either warn the others of danger, or to alert them to his situation).Should the DM forbid/prevent the shout, based on the precedent set for the character? Is it fair? What if the "silent surprise" has happened several times (all when a shout wasn't needed and would have made the PC look "weak")?How about other examples of precedent set by the Player's choice -- is a DM within his "rights" to countermand a Player's choice when it looks like the Player is changing his character to metagame?Is there ever a situation where a DM could/should overrule a Player's play of his character?Quasqueton</blockquote>

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