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General Tabletop Discussion
*Pathfinder & Starfinder
Forked Thread: Are Targets defined by intent or the effect?
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<blockquote data-quote="Syrsuro" data-source="post: 4402366" data-attributes="member: 58162"><p>I see this as pretty clear. Note: ".... the wall <em>blocks</em> attacks" (not prevents attacks).</p><p> </p><p>1. You have expended your daily power. You made an attack and it was blocked by the invisible wall of force. The same would be true of a character who used, for example, a ranged weapon attack power on the target.</p><p>2/3. You have made an attack that includes the paladin as a target. The fact that the attack <em>missed</em> is no more relevant than it would be if you shot at the paladin with an arrow and the arrow bounced off of some cover between you and the paladin. In both cases, <em>something </em>between you and the paladin prevented a hit.</p><p> </p><p> </p><p>That said, a side of me is tempted to consider a house rule that would result in a firecube exploding where a line between the caster and the target square intercepted the wall of force (with all of the unintended consequences that would entail). But that would definately be a house rule and one I would feel obligated to discuss with my players before implementing.</p><p> </p><p>But as I read the RAW, the result is as above - a failed attack on the paladin.</p><p> </p><p>The real question (and I'm not sure if the RAW address this or not) is: "Do you always <em>know </em>whether or not you have line of effect. In other words, do you somehow know that there is an invisible wall of force there before you cast the spell, or is it unknown until such a time as the spell fails. And when the spell fails, do you know <em>why</em> it failed? This sounds like a case for the Arcana skill, but I haven't given it a lot of thought as of yet. And it may depend on the origin of this hypothetical wall of force (conjuration or zone versus ritual effect versus magical effect, for example).</p><p> </p><p>Carl</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Syrsuro, post: 4402366, member: 58162"] I see this as pretty clear. Note: ".... the wall [I]blocks[/I] attacks" (not prevents attacks). 1. You have expended your daily power. You made an attack and it was blocked by the invisible wall of force. The same would be true of a character who used, for example, a ranged weapon attack power on the target. 2/3. You have made an attack that includes the paladin as a target. The fact that the attack [I]missed[/I] is no more relevant than it would be if you shot at the paladin with an arrow and the arrow bounced off of some cover between you and the paladin. In both cases, [I]something [/I]between you and the paladin prevented a hit. That said, a side of me is tempted to consider a house rule that would result in a firecube exploding where a line between the caster and the target square intercepted the wall of force (with all of the unintended consequences that would entail). But that would definately be a house rule and one I would feel obligated to discuss with my players before implementing. But as I read the RAW, the result is as above - a failed attack on the paladin. The real question (and I'm not sure if the RAW address this or not) is: "Do you always [I]know [/I]whether or not you have line of effect. In other words, do you somehow know that there is an invisible wall of force there before you cast the spell, or is it unknown until such a time as the spell fails. And when the spell fails, do you know [I]why[/I] it failed? This sounds like a case for the Arcana skill, but I haven't given it a lot of thought as of yet. And it may depend on the origin of this hypothetical wall of force (conjuration or zone versus ritual effect versus magical effect, for example). Carl [/QUOTE]
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Forked Thread: Are Targets defined by intent or the effect?
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