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General Tabletop Discussion
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Is it houseruling to let a torch set fire to things?
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<blockquote data-quote="pemerton" data-source="post: 6879548" data-attributes="member: 42582"><p>It's not unambiguous!</p><p></p><p>Here's one way it could have been made unambiguous: <em>The spell ignites flammable objects that are in the area of effect and are neither worn nor carried by a creature. It does no damage to any other objects.</em> I'm sure there are other variations that would have the same consequence (eg judicious use of "only").</p><p></p><p>But no such wording occurs. You are extrapolating an intent and a message which is not the only plausible thing being communicated. As [MENTION=6787503]Hriston[/MENTION] has just pointed out, for instance, and as I am inclined to think, the significance of calling out these things specifically is <em>to take the question of their ignition outside the realm of GM discretion</em>. Which would still leave other objects within GM discretion (as per SRD p 87).</p><p></p><p>But there are any number of reasons why those rules might not be approriate: for instance, if they invoke GM discretion and - when it comes to fireball's effect upon non-worn, non-carried items you don't want the GM to have discretion.</p><p></p><p>I could equally say: had s/he wanted to state <em>and nothing else is affected</em>, s/he would have said so. But s/he didn't.</p><p></p><p>Which means it is a matter of interpretation. Your reading is no more "automatic" than mine. And I think mine has the virtue of reconciling the spell description with p 87, <em>and</em> of reducing absurdities in the fiction, like goblins being burned to death yet their clothing being completely unsinged.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="pemerton, post: 6879548, member: 42582"] It's not unambiguous! Here's one way it could have been made unambiguous: [I]The spell ignites flammable objects that are in the area of effect and are neither worn nor carried by a creature. It does no damage to any other objects.[/I] I'm sure there are other variations that would have the same consequence (eg judicious use of "only"). But no such wording occurs. You are extrapolating an intent and a message which is not the only plausible thing being communicated. As [MENTION=6787503]Hriston[/MENTION] has just pointed out, for instance, and as I am inclined to think, the significance of calling out these things specifically is [I]to take the question of their ignition outside the realm of GM discretion[/I]. Which would still leave other objects within GM discretion (as per SRD p 87). But there are any number of reasons why those rules might not be approriate: for instance, if they invoke GM discretion and - when it comes to fireball's effect upon non-worn, non-carried items you don't want the GM to have discretion. I could equally say: had s/he wanted to state [I]and nothing else is affected[/I], s/he would have said so. But s/he didn't. Which means it is a matter of interpretation. Your reading is no more "automatic" than mine. And I think mine has the virtue of reconciling the spell description with p 87, [I]and[/I] of reducing absurdities in the fiction, like goblins being burned to death yet their clothing being completely unsinged. [/QUOTE]
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Is it houseruling to let a torch set fire to things?
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