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General Tabletop Discussion
*Dungeons & Dragons
Is the rapier "necessary"?
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<blockquote data-quote="Cap'n Kobold" data-source="post: 6848099" data-attributes="member: 6802951"><p>Actual differences in the way they were used however don't matter unless they actually impact upon the D&D mechanics though. Just assume that anyone proficient with a weapon will use it in a correct style. Just because historical longswords were used in a different style to zweihanders, doesn't mean they don't both use greatsword stats as far as 5th ed is concerned. </p><p>The style or method in which they were used doesn't matter since both weapons boil down to "<em>2d6 Slashing, Heavy, 2-handed</em>."</p><p></p><p> Finesse is one of my personal bugbears, but bear in mind that its a weapon property, and doesn't affect shield usage at all by the rules. Bucklers are covered under shields in 5th ed, so rapier and shield isn't as odd as you might have thought.</p><p></p><p> In general, not much. Whether you decide to upgrade the tulwars and similar to d8 finesse weapons, or to not bother with a rapier substitute isn't going to make or break your game.</p><p>You might want to perhaps adjust the proficiencies a bit, maybe giving Rogues, Bards etc scimitar profs since those were more common weapons than longsword-types though. </p><p></p><p> Bear in mind that we're looking at a couple of hundred years here, and Europe was much more cosmopolitan in the renaissance than it was in the more mediaeval period. Rapiers and prestigious fencing masters travelled and were in demand as fashion items with every noble wanting to copy the trendsetters. There were different styles of fencing and rapier-equivalents in different countries, and not every European country adopted the rapier so enthusiastically.</p><p></p><p>However to get back to your original point, yes, Rapiers were developed and used by the same areas that used longswords, and indeed would often be used by the same person.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Cap'n Kobold, post: 6848099, member: 6802951"] Actual differences in the way they were used however don't matter unless they actually impact upon the D&D mechanics though. Just assume that anyone proficient with a weapon will use it in a correct style. Just because historical longswords were used in a different style to zweihanders, doesn't mean they don't both use greatsword stats as far as 5th ed is concerned. The style or method in which they were used doesn't matter since both weapons boil down to "[I]2d6 Slashing, Heavy, 2-handed[/I]." Finesse is one of my personal bugbears, but bear in mind that its a weapon property, and doesn't affect shield usage at all by the rules. Bucklers are covered under shields in 5th ed, so rapier and shield isn't as odd as you might have thought. In general, not much. Whether you decide to upgrade the tulwars and similar to d8 finesse weapons, or to not bother with a rapier substitute isn't going to make or break your game. You might want to perhaps adjust the proficiencies a bit, maybe giving Rogues, Bards etc scimitar profs since those were more common weapons than longsword-types though. Bear in mind that we're looking at a couple of hundred years here, and Europe was much more cosmopolitan in the renaissance than it was in the more mediaeval period. Rapiers and prestigious fencing masters travelled and were in demand as fashion items with every noble wanting to copy the trendsetters. There were different styles of fencing and rapier-equivalents in different countries, and not every European country adopted the rapier so enthusiastically. However to get back to your original point, yes, Rapiers were developed and used by the same areas that used longswords, and indeed would often be used by the same person. [/QUOTE]
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Is the rapier "necessary"?
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