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General Tabletop Discussion
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MAgic Items as Loot and Effect on Player Wealth
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<blockquote data-quote="nwn_deadman" data-source="post: 32233" data-attributes="member: 2087"><p><strong>revamp</strong></p><p></p><p>Here is a case in point.</p><p></p><p>In a large campaign where there are numerous DM's and hundreds of players (Neverwinter Nights, or Living City or others) there has to be a standard way to determine party loot and its effect on player wealth.</p><p></p><p>Lets take what the rules say.</p><p></p><p>When a player receives a magic item as a share of loot, the player will treat the items value as 1/2 its market value (the only exception is when another players wishes to bid on the item)</p><p></p><p>Now, take that 1/2 valuation and add it to the player’s accumulated wealth.</p><p></p><p>For instance, a cloak of resistance +1 is worth 1000 gp market value, but he player will only have to count this as a 500 gp share of the loot. The party has 6 players and 3000 gp to split between them.</p><p></p><p>Each of the players will receive a 500 gp value. Once the players have divided up the loot the gold/items that they have now are considered accumulated wealth.</p><p></p><p>Some of the people in here seem to think that the person that has the cloak now has amassed more wealth then the other characters, but has he really?</p><p></p><p>Did they not each had an EQUAL amount of loot, remember?</p><p></p><p>Since they did in fact receive an EQUAL amount of loot, they are all now worth 500 gp.</p><p></p><p>You cannot say that now that we are looking at each player’s possessions in terms of overall wealth that the items that they have are now worth a different amount!</p><p></p><p>If you were to account for each item that a character has in double entry accounting you would have some explaining to do when you said that the player with the cloak now has 1000 gp wealth. Just a second ago at the table where the loot was divided the player with the cloak just walked away with a 500 gp value. Where is the other 500 gp coming from?</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="nwn_deadman, post: 32233, member: 2087"] [b]revamp[/b] Here is a case in point. In a large campaign where there are numerous DM's and hundreds of players (Neverwinter Nights, or Living City or others) there has to be a standard way to determine party loot and its effect on player wealth. Lets take what the rules say. When a player receives a magic item as a share of loot, the player will treat the items value as 1/2 its market value (the only exception is when another players wishes to bid on the item) Now, take that 1/2 valuation and add it to the player’s accumulated wealth. For instance, a cloak of resistance +1 is worth 1000 gp market value, but he player will only have to count this as a 500 gp share of the loot. The party has 6 players and 3000 gp to split between them. Each of the players will receive a 500 gp value. Once the players have divided up the loot the gold/items that they have now are considered accumulated wealth. Some of the people in here seem to think that the person that has the cloak now has amassed more wealth then the other characters, but has he really? Did they not each had an EQUAL amount of loot, remember? Since they did in fact receive an EQUAL amount of loot, they are all now worth 500 gp. You cannot say that now that we are looking at each player’s possessions in terms of overall wealth that the items that they have are now worth a different amount! If you were to account for each item that a character has in double entry accounting you would have some explaining to do when you said that the player with the cloak now has 1000 gp wealth. Just a second ago at the table where the loot was divided the player with the cloak just walked away with a 500 gp value. Where is the other 500 gp coming from? [/QUOTE]
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