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Magic Missile vs. Mirror Image
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<blockquote data-quote="Maxperson" data-source="post: 7425231" data-attributes="member: 23751"><p>This is nonsensical. The 2e and 3e versions, like the 1e and 5e versions also could not possibly miss the target creature, and could only target creatures. They also specified that the spell did not affect objects that it struck. So, a spell that cannot miss the target creature explained that it could not effect inanimate objects. Why is that do you think? Is it because it wasn't possible to hit those objects with the spell, or because it would be nonsense to think that the spell would just fail to happen completely if you say aimed it at a wall? I'd bet good money that Gygax got tired of people asking him if you could aim a 1e MM at a sword and having to respond that, yes it just makes sense that you can aim it at anything, but it can only affect creatures, so he threw that bit about objects into 2e. I see no reason why 5e would be any different.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Maxperson, post: 7425231, member: 23751"] This is nonsensical. The 2e and 3e versions, like the 1e and 5e versions also could not possibly miss the target creature, and could only target creatures. They also specified that the spell did not affect objects that it struck. So, a spell that cannot miss the target creature explained that it could not effect inanimate objects. Why is that do you think? Is it because it wasn't possible to hit those objects with the spell, or because it would be nonsense to think that the spell would just fail to happen completely if you say aimed it at a wall? I'd bet good money that Gygax got tired of people asking him if you could aim a 1e MM at a sword and having to respond that, yes it just makes sense that you can aim it at anything, but it can only affect creatures, so he threw that bit about objects into 2e. I see no reason why 5e would be any different. [/QUOTE]
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Magic Missile vs. Mirror Image
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