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<blockquote data-quote="takyris" data-source="post: 729372" data-attributes="member: 5171"><p>Thanks, Mistwell! Sounds like a reasonable compromise, in addition to being the official answer.</p><p></p><p>-Tacky</p><p></p><p>PS: And stupid me for not asking this before, but does that mean that a gun is ALWAYS treated as a melee weapon when it was last used to make melee attacks?</p><p></p><p>For example, you can only take attacks of opportunity when armed (or CONSIDERED armed, for martial artists) with a melee weapon.</p><p></p><p>Let's say that there are three characters:</p><p></p><p>|......C|</p><p>|A....B|</p><p>|........|</p><p>|........|</p><p>|....L..|</p><p></p><p></p><p>Character A, a bad guy, shoots at C, a hero, with a pistol.</p><p></p><p>Character B, a bad guy, uses his pistol as a melee weapon to whack character C, a hero. He doesn't want to take that five foot step back and fire because he's afraid of a tripwire trap behind him.</p><p></p><p>Neither A nor B have any martial arts experience that would let them make attacks of opportunity unless they were holding melee weapons.</p><p></p><p>Character C, on his turn, runs to get to the big important lever (L) that A and B were guarding. In doing so, he moves through threatened squares, and he's planning on taking an action (pulling that lever) when he gets past them, so it's not a double move.</p><p></p><p>Does it make sense to assume that B, who was using his gun as a melee weapon, gets to make an AoO, but character A, who used his gun as a ranged weapon, does not?</p><p></p><p>That makes sense to me, but I just wanna confirm. You don't have to actually ask CR this if you think he's covered enough stuff like it.</p><p></p><p>Thanks!</p><p></p><p>-Tacky again</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="takyris, post: 729372, member: 5171"] Thanks, Mistwell! Sounds like a reasonable compromise, in addition to being the official answer. -Tacky PS: And stupid me for not asking this before, but does that mean that a gun is ALWAYS treated as a melee weapon when it was last used to make melee attacks? For example, you can only take attacks of opportunity when armed (or CONSIDERED armed, for martial artists) with a melee weapon. Let's say that there are three characters: |......C| |A....B| |........| |........| |....L..| Character A, a bad guy, shoots at C, a hero, with a pistol. Character B, a bad guy, uses his pistol as a melee weapon to whack character C, a hero. He doesn't want to take that five foot step back and fire because he's afraid of a tripwire trap behind him. Neither A nor B have any martial arts experience that would let them make attacks of opportunity unless they were holding melee weapons. Character C, on his turn, runs to get to the big important lever (L) that A and B were guarding. In doing so, he moves through threatened squares, and he's planning on taking an action (pulling that lever) when he gets past them, so it's not a double move. Does it make sense to assume that B, who was using his gun as a melee weapon, gets to make an AoO, but character A, who used his gun as a ranged weapon, does not? That makes sense to me, but I just wanna confirm. You don't have to actually ask CR this if you think he's covered enough stuff like it. Thanks! -Tacky again [/QUOTE]
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