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[OT] today's random language gripe
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<blockquote data-quote="Thorvald Kviksverd" data-source="post: 982649" data-attributes="member: 1495"><p>Interestingly, I do both in my own "idiolect". <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f609.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=";)" title="Wink ;)" data-smilie="2"data-shortname=";)" /></p><p></p><p>Spiced Cider</p><p></p><p>Ice Coffee</p><p></p><p>Ice(d) Tea?? (Who knows, as I mentioned, I can't tell from my pronunciation)</p><p></p><p>It would be fun to structure a test to find out if I apply an underlying rule, or if each is learned on an individual basis. My suspicion is that the "ice coffee" is the exception to <em>my</em> "rule".</p><p></p><p>I'm constantly noticing such consistent "mistakes" in my own speech, and wondering how they arose. While linguists find such observations fun, and can go on endlessly about them, many (perhaps most) non-linguist take exception when we take note of these distinctions in their own idiolects. I think linguists are more inclined to be able to view these differences as just that--differences--while the non-linguist will often feel that these observations are instead criticisms, and feel offended at the implication that their speech is somehow "non-standard" or incorrect. Personally, I think the standard is an ideal that is probably achieved by no one, but is nonetheless a necessary concession to prevent our idiolects from straying too far afield, and leading to even greater ambiguity--or even unintelligibility.</p><p></p><p>Wouldn't be a linguist yourself, would you? <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f609.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=";)" title="Wink ;)" data-smilie="2"data-shortname=";)" /></p><p></p><p>(I specialized in syntax myself, and had a fondness for phonology and diachronic linguistics as well.)</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Thorvald Kviksverd, post: 982649, member: 1495"] Interestingly, I do both in my own "idiolect". ;) Spiced Cider Ice Coffee Ice(d) Tea?? (Who knows, as I mentioned, I can't tell from my pronunciation) It would be fun to structure a test to find out if I apply an underlying rule, or if each is learned on an individual basis. My suspicion is that the "ice coffee" is the exception to [i]my[/i] "rule". I'm constantly noticing such consistent "mistakes" in my own speech, and wondering how they arose. While linguists find such observations fun, and can go on endlessly about them, many (perhaps most) non-linguist take exception when we take note of these distinctions in their own idiolects. I think linguists are more inclined to be able to view these differences as just that--differences--while the non-linguist will often feel that these observations are instead criticisms, and feel offended at the implication that their speech is somehow "non-standard" or incorrect. Personally, I think the standard is an ideal that is probably achieved by no one, but is nonetheless a necessary concession to prevent our idiolects from straying too far afield, and leading to even greater ambiguity--or even unintelligibility. Wouldn't be a linguist yourself, would you? ;) (I specialized in syntax myself, and had a fondness for phonology and diachronic linguistics as well.) [/QUOTE]
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