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Message: <blockquote data-quote="lightful" data-source="post: 5747785" data-attributes="member: 10870">But he wouldn't have been targetting the paladin, just the area, that he (the behir) and the paladin occupied. It was always my understanding that as long as the marked creature does it's level best to include the marking defender in it's attack, mark punishment shouldn't trigger ... or am I mistaken ?In a somewhat similiar vein (at least to my way of thinking), the warlord has Friendly Fire. This power forces an enemy to reroll the attack agaisnt an ally if the original attack missed (and with the ranger using Disrupting Shot it WILL miss more often than not). The question then becomes, if the attacking enemy was previously marked, and the original attack DID target the paladin, yet the reroll after the miss doesn't (obviously), would the attacker be subject to mark punishment ? Or, the melee basic attack granted to a foe after the warlord uses Brash Assault; that attack can ONLY be made against the warlord, yet he can choose NOT to do it, so if he does, and he had been previously marked, is the enemy subject to the punishment for violating a mark ?And yet another question which just occured to me relating to the original incident with the behir. As the behir was about to attack with it's area lightning thing, the paladin from within it's belly tried to interrupt the attack with Price of Cowardice and missed. This is an immediate interrupt with the trigger being the marked target attacking anyone else, well and good, except, from his position inside the beast, the paladin couldn't actually see the attack unfolding, the condition being met (if it was indeed, see the original question), so could he interrupt it ? I suppose that in the case of the paladin we could RP some sort of divine alarm going off in his mind, but what if he had been a fighter ?</blockquote>

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