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Message: <blockquote data-quote="Drakken" data-source="post: 541498" data-attributes="member: 9405">I think a big point of the mage casting while being observed by the readied archer depends on if the spell is targeted at the archer? Here are my "opinions" without book facts.Considering all things are supposed to be simaltaneous, and they are broken into rounds merely for game playability, then readied means the archer goes when his defined criteria are met. If the archer had even a 1/1000th of a second, and he noticed a spell effect starting "On Him", he would be able to release his arrow. Even a command word or psionics would have to enter someone's mind to effect them. And all the archer needs is the moment he senses something to react, before the thought is completed. That is kind of what Readied implies. And a spell might go off instantaneous, but I think readied means that before it completes it's effects, the archer could react. Technically the spell would start first, but the archer could react.Maybe he can't sense the weave, but nothing says that magic has no visible characteristics. It's not an "invisible" quickened etc etc. Maybe it looks like the invisible "Predator" moving towards the archer, or displaces air, or glows & shimmers, who knows, it's a DM's call. That's the big thing, if there is any visible effect either mentally/visibly/audibly/etc the archer get's to go.So, where in the books does it say spells are invisible? Let's throw this one back to prove spells are invisible instead of proving they are visible. Which means it's probably the DM's call again!This is a cool discussion though! <img src="https://cdn.jsdelivr.net/joypixels/assets/8.0/png/unicode/64/1f642.png" class="smilie smilie--emoji" loading="lazy" width="64" height="64" alt=":)" title="Smile    :)"  data-smilie="1"data-shortname=":)" /></blockquote>

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