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Message: <blockquote data-quote="pemerton" data-source="post: 6859609" data-attributes="member: 42582">I take it to mean "measures some really existing, determinable property that occurs in determinate quantities to which real-number values can be assigned" - such as mass, length, charge, etc.Or something like that.I'm not 100% certain, because I'm having trouble working out what the real objection is. The whole issues seems fairly straightforward to me: a given IQ score occurs, more-or-less (and depending how well the test design actually satisfies the theoretical desiderata that govern its construction), at a particular frequency across a population; and a given INT score occurs, more-or-less (assuming that 3d6 is applied on a gameworld-wide basis), at a particular frequency across a population; so if you want INT to correspond to IQ, you would match up the 3d6 frequencies with the IQ frequencies.One point of objection might be someone who wants to tackle the equation of likelihoods (via randomisation) with frequencies; but no one seems to be pushing that particular point in the philosophy of probability.Another point of objection might be that, at least in 1st ed AD&D, many NPCs are meant to have scores determined using "averaging" dice (treat 1s as 3s and 6s as 4s); but I think I'm the only posters to have pointed that out.But I'm baffled as to why it is meant to matter to this issue whether or not intelligence or IQ is a real property that occurs in quantities that are capable of being measured.</blockquote>

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