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General Tabletop Discussion
D&D Older Editions, OSR, & D&D Variants
The difference between Ad&d 1st and 2nd edition?
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<blockquote data-quote="billd91" data-source="post: 5156559" data-attributes="member: 3400"><p>That's <strong>one</strong> way to interpret it.</p><p>But when you look at the instructions about Party B surprising party A on 5 in 6 less 1 in 6 and translate that to other dice, it's not that clear. It's easy to see that, compared to the normal 2 in 6 of being surprised, that party A's 1 in 6 better at avoiding the surprise. But then, the dice size is the same.</p><p>If group C was surprised 1 in 8, party B's 5 in 6 reduces to what? If 2 in 6 is normal, what do we subtract from the 5 in 6 to arrive at the new surprise value?</p><p>You interpret it in the other direction. 5 in 6 is 3 in 6 better than the base assumption so you're saying they surprise Party C by adding 3 in 8 to get 4 in 8. At least that's what I'm interpreting from your post. You just concern yourself with the numerators.</p><p>But the operations, as described by the DMG, can't be followed without doing a significantly different calculation. I can't reduce 5 in 6 by the difference between normal and 1 in 8 without putting them in the same terms and changing the die. I can take the common denominator approach and see that Party B's 20 in 24 is reduced by 5 in 24 (normal's 8 in 24 - Party C's 3 in 24) to 15/24 or 5 in 8. Notice how that's a different outcome from your interpretation at 4 in 8.</p><p></p><p>The difference in our interpretations gets even weirder with the monk whose surprise die is d%. Party B's massive 5 in 6 surprise advantage becomes virtually worthless against monks. A 3rd level monk is surprised 30% of the time. 30 in 100. Are you really suggesting adding just 3 to that and turning a surprise percentage that's normally 50% higher into merely 3% higher simply because the enemies are 3rd level monks? </p><p></p><p>This is why 1e surprise was such a mess.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="billd91, post: 5156559, member: 3400"] That's [b]one[/b] way to interpret it. But when you look at the instructions about Party B surprising party A on 5 in 6 less 1 in 6 and translate that to other dice, it's not that clear. It's easy to see that, compared to the normal 2 in 6 of being surprised, that party A's 1 in 6 better at avoiding the surprise. But then, the dice size is the same. If group C was surprised 1 in 8, party B's 5 in 6 reduces to what? If 2 in 6 is normal, what do we subtract from the 5 in 6 to arrive at the new surprise value? You interpret it in the other direction. 5 in 6 is 3 in 6 better than the base assumption so you're saying they surprise Party C by adding 3 in 8 to get 4 in 8. At least that's what I'm interpreting from your post. You just concern yourself with the numerators. But the operations, as described by the DMG, can't be followed without doing a significantly different calculation. I can't reduce 5 in 6 by the difference between normal and 1 in 8 without putting them in the same terms and changing the die. I can take the common denominator approach and see that Party B's 20 in 24 is reduced by 5 in 24 (normal's 8 in 24 - Party C's 3 in 24) to 15/24 or 5 in 8. Notice how that's a different outcome from your interpretation at 4 in 8. The difference in our interpretations gets even weirder with the monk whose surprise die is d%. Party B's massive 5 in 6 surprise advantage becomes virtually worthless against monks. A 3rd level monk is surprised 30% of the time. 30 in 100. Are you really suggesting adding just 3 to that and turning a surprise percentage that's normally 50% higher into merely 3% higher simply because the enemies are 3rd level monks? This is why 1e surprise was such a mess. [/QUOTE]
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The difference between Ad&d 1st and 2nd edition?
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