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General Tabletop Discussion
*Pathfinder & Starfinder
VoP vs. Call Weapon
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<blockquote data-quote="wildstarsreach" data-source="post: 3110681" data-attributes="member: 43141"><p>Having read through the posts, here is my opinion. No, it does not violate the VoP.</p><p></p><p>Why you say, if considered an actual weapon, it is normal and non-distinctive other than the glow from the astral summoning. Theoretically this could be construed as stealing but says nothing about denying the owner its use. The summoned weapon could be from a fallen being on some distant battlefield. Therefore no owner would be hurt. Two, does enhancing your weapon violate you VoP? I don't think so. </p><p></p><p>Its advantage is that at 1st level you can overcome DR magic. Now how many fights happen at this level where it would be necessary to have magic to defeat a foe? Usually it would be silver or cold iron. You'd be outclassed if it were often. You get a +1 enhancement at 4th level with VoP so at 5th level when you could manifest 5 PP to enhance your summoned weapon, it would be useless since they would not stack.</p><p></p><p>In this I would use the quote "A difference that makes no difference is no difference."</p><p></p><p>Does owning a spellbook since this is a class feature for a wizard violate the VoP. Does owning a suit of common Full Plate, weapons, a horse and such violate this. The VoP is meant to make that the character gets by on the minimum necessary to accomplish him doing. It doesn't allow to hold back say 5000 GP and bribe the officials so that you could smuggle some oppressed peasants out of a kingdom. It would allow youhave the armor and accoutrements necessary to fight or cast spells. It would not allow a wizard to buy every spell willy nilly but under DM supervision to add occasional spells beyond the 2 they get every level if the DM saw some benefit that would help the poor masses.</p><p></p><p>One other thing, about the only time that this would really be an issue is when a PC is without his weapon such as a negotiation where the situation requires that no weapons are present.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="wildstarsreach, post: 3110681, member: 43141"] Having read through the posts, here is my opinion. No, it does not violate the VoP. Why you say, if considered an actual weapon, it is normal and non-distinctive other than the glow from the astral summoning. Theoretically this could be construed as stealing but says nothing about denying the owner its use. The summoned weapon could be from a fallen being on some distant battlefield. Therefore no owner would be hurt. Two, does enhancing your weapon violate you VoP? I don't think so. Its advantage is that at 1st level you can overcome DR magic. Now how many fights happen at this level where it would be necessary to have magic to defeat a foe? Usually it would be silver or cold iron. You'd be outclassed if it were often. You get a +1 enhancement at 4th level with VoP so at 5th level when you could manifest 5 PP to enhance your summoned weapon, it would be useless since they would not stack. In this I would use the quote "A difference that makes no difference is no difference." Does owning a spellbook since this is a class feature for a wizard violate the VoP. Does owning a suit of common Full Plate, weapons, a horse and such violate this. The VoP is meant to make that the character gets by on the minimum necessary to accomplish him doing. It doesn't allow to hold back say 5000 GP and bribe the officials so that you could smuggle some oppressed peasants out of a kingdom. It would allow youhave the armor and accoutrements necessary to fight or cast spells. It would not allow a wizard to buy every spell willy nilly but under DM supervision to add occasional spells beyond the 2 they get every level if the DM saw some benefit that would help the poor masses. One other thing, about the only time that this would really be an issue is when a PC is without his weapon such as a negotiation where the situation requires that no weapons are present. [/QUOTE]
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VoP vs. Call Weapon
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