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Why you hittin' yo'self? (damage reduction questions)
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<blockquote data-quote="Patryn of Elvenshae" data-source="post: 2446807" data-attributes="member: 23094"><p>Because I'm not ignoring it. Sheesh. Can I sunder something? No, because the "significant portion" can't do damage to nonliving stuff. Can I disarm something? Generally yes, because I'm not limited to hacking at your sword with my sword. I can use the <strong>nonsignificant portions</strong> of my weapon, as applicable, to take your weapon out of your hand.</p><p></p><p>The two are different mechanics - and you're operating under the assumption that I need to bring the significant portion of my weapon to bear on something in order to disarm it. The rules don't require that. If you don't start from that assumption (which is, frankly, baseless), you don't come to the same conclusion.</p><p> </p><p></p><p></p><p>Well, shucks, now, how about <strong>a circumstance penalty?</strong></p><p> </p><p></p><p></p><p>Whereas I see that you're starting from an incorrect premise, and therefore getting incorrect results.</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>Yes, but only in the case where the nonsignificant portions of the weapon don't need to penetrate the cover - which is why the trick mentioned above is generally limited to whips and spiked chains when not in the presence of very thin walls.</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>Because there's no <strong>damage</strong> being done. If I want to do 1d12 slashing damage to you with my BE axe, I need to hit you with the significant portion of it. If I want to do 1d12 slashing damage to <strong>your</strong> axe, then I need to hit it with the significant portion of it - which I can't do, because my weapon's BW.</p><p></p><p>If I don't want to do 1d12 slashing damage to anything, then it's not required that I hit it with my axehead. That doesn't prevent me, however, from hooking your axeblade with the haft of my BE axe and yanking it out of your hands. Is it harder if I don't have my own axeblade to act as a hook? Probably, which is why I mentioned a <strong>circumstance penalty</strong>.</p><p></p><p></p><p></p><p>Balderdash. I am perfectly consistent with my initial premise.</p><p></p><p>EDIT:</p><p></p><p>To be perfectly, crystal clear, my initial premise is: "If are attempting to do damage to a target, you must bring the significant portion of your weapon to bear on that target. If you are not attempting to do damage to a target, you <strong>may not have to</strong> bring the significant portion of your weapon to bear on that target."</p><p></p><p>If you are attempting to disarm a vampire through a wall with a BE spiked chain, you can't do it. You may strike at the vampire only with the significant portion of your weapon, which ignores the vampire's weapon and the vampire itself. If the vampire were (somehow) wielding a <strong>living weapon</strong> (c.f. Eberron), you could attempt to disarm or sunder it.</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="Patryn of Elvenshae, post: 2446807, member: 23094"] Because I'm not ignoring it. Sheesh. Can I sunder something? No, because the "significant portion" can't do damage to nonliving stuff. Can I disarm something? Generally yes, because I'm not limited to hacking at your sword with my sword. I can use the [b]nonsignificant portions[/b] of my weapon, as applicable, to take your weapon out of your hand. The two are different mechanics - and you're operating under the assumption that I need to bring the significant portion of my weapon to bear on something in order to disarm it. The rules don't require that. If you don't start from that assumption (which is, frankly, baseless), you don't come to the same conclusion. Well, shucks, now, how about [b]a circumstance penalty?[/b] Whereas I see that you're starting from an incorrect premise, and therefore getting incorrect results. Yes, but only in the case where the nonsignificant portions of the weapon don't need to penetrate the cover - which is why the trick mentioned above is generally limited to whips and spiked chains when not in the presence of very thin walls. Because there's no [b]damage[/b] being done. If I want to do 1d12 slashing damage to you with my BE axe, I need to hit you with the significant portion of it. If I want to do 1d12 slashing damage to [b]your[/b] axe, then I need to hit it with the significant portion of it - which I can't do, because my weapon's BW. If I don't want to do 1d12 slashing damage to anything, then it's not required that I hit it with my axehead. That doesn't prevent me, however, from hooking your axeblade with the haft of my BE axe and yanking it out of your hands. Is it harder if I don't have my own axeblade to act as a hook? Probably, which is why I mentioned a [b]circumstance penalty[/b]. Balderdash. I am perfectly consistent with my initial premise. EDIT: To be perfectly, crystal clear, my initial premise is: "If are attempting to do damage to a target, you must bring the significant portion of your weapon to bear on that target. If you are not attempting to do damage to a target, you [b]may not have to[/b] bring the significant portion of your weapon to bear on that target." If you are attempting to disarm a vampire through a wall with a BE spiked chain, you can't do it. You may strike at the vampire only with the significant portion of your weapon, which ignores the vampire's weapon and the vampire itself. If the vampire were (somehow) wielding a [b]living weapon[/b] (c.f. Eberron), you could attempt to disarm or sunder it. [/QUOTE]
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