You're taking one thing (immunity to mind-affecting effects), and extrapolating it to mean another (immunity to all forms of mental control / no mind to affect), when nowhere is this stated in the actual rules,
mental |ˈmentl|
adjective
1 of or relating to the mind : mental faculties | mental phenomena.
• carried out by or taking place in the mind : a quick mental calculation | I started my mental journey.
2 of, relating to, or suffering from disorders or illnesses of the mind : a mental hospital.
• [ predic. ] informal insane; crazy : every time I'm five minutes late, they go mental.
DERIVATIVES
mentally adverb
ORIGIN late Middle English : from late Latin mentalis, from Latin mens, ment- ‘mind.’
I'm not extrapolating anything.
NEVER did I claim that Immunity to Mind-affecting effects always implies that they do not have a mind to affect. This is putting words in my mouth. (see later on this post).
I'm taking
immunity to mind affecting-effects for what it is.
When someone controls your mind , he AFFECTS your mind. Therefore if one is immune to mind affecting effects, he cannot have his mind controlled by somebody else.
If you had a bucket of mind-affecting effects, "mental/mind control" (as in having YOUR mind CONTROLLED by others) is in this bucket. Plain and simple.
The rules are clear as far as I'm concerned, and without any intention of sounding or being insulting, they are in the english language itself.
And I say this, because the debate has unfortunately transcended from a rules discussion into a debate on the meaning of words and the meaning of combinations of words.
and then you're saying a thing that is explicitly called out as "mental control" is obviously not "mental control" based on that extrapolation.
As i explained in my previous post, "mental control" has two, pretty opposing meanings, and I explained both of them in my previous post.
Mental control, what you just put in brackets and what you so feverishly present as a gaming-term/rule with a single meaning, is neither of the two. It is not a rule, nor has it a single meaning.
Again--->
Mental control has two meanings:
a)Either YOUR mind is being controlled by something/someone, or
b)YOU control something/someone with your mind.
Honestly, I can't put it simpler than this. One meaning for the PFE+Disobedience case, different meaning for the Cleric-Undead case.
a)PFE+Disobedience block someone from controlling your mind.
b)The cleric mentally (by giving orders mentally - by using HIS mind) commands the undead.
Read my previous post for further explanation.
Moreover, nothing is based on an extrapolation, because as I explained earlier, there is no extrapolation to begin with.
Or to put it another way: Do you have an actual page reference where the book says Immunity to Mind-affecting effects always implies that they do not have a mind to affect (note: You'll be able to find a few for the other direction - that not having a mind implies immunity to mind-affecting effects - but logically speaking "B implies A" does not require "A implies B" to also be true).
What? Jack, honestly, you are running around in circles.
As I said earlier:
ALL undead are IMMUNE to MIND-AFFECTING effects.
No matter how one interprets mind/brain/intelligence (be that my interpretation that undead are mindless in a sense that they have no mind/brain and that their intelligence and very existence stems from a supernatural unliving force... or yours... or any other interpretation) the fact remains that they are IMMUNE to MIND-AFFECTING effects, and having YOUR mind controlled is undoubtedly one such effect.
So no one, no matter what, has the ability to control/affect the mind/brain/intelligence of the undead.
Even if I had claimed that, for me, undead have a fine functioning brain, and that I justify the fact that they are Immune to mind-affecting effects because my bicycle is blue, it wouldn't make difference. Why? because undead are immune to it no matter how i like to picture it/imagine it.
Again:
NEVER did I claim that "Immunity to Mind-affecting effects always implies that they do not have a mind to affect". This is putting words in my mouth.
And to save you the trouble of searching, what i said is this:
No matter how one interprets mind/brain/intelligence (be that my interpretation that undead are mindless in a sense that they have no mind/brain and that their intelligence and very existence stems from a supernatural unliving force... or yours... or any other interpretation) the fact remains that they are IMMUNE to MIND-AFFECTING effects,
after this.
This is how I justify the fact that all undead are immune to all mind-affecting effects.
after this.
I think you are confusing mind/brain with intelligence. All undead are mindless in a sense that their brain does not work, even if they have one (a kind of rotten one actually ). They might have lungs, a liver, a stomach, a brain... but none of them work/function, they just are. This is why ALL undead are immune to ALL mind-affecting effects and to Critical hits (even if you pierce an undead's brain instead of his leg... it doesn't make a difference).
So this is the time where I ask you the same question you asked me...
Where are YOU getting this?
Cause I don't think that your false claims are leading to anything constructive.