SpikeyFreak
First Post
I both disagree and agree with both Caliban and totally disagree with KD.13. Does the Bless Weapon spell (Pal 1) bypass any amount of DR on an evil creature? (You could read it as either: Negates all DR on any evil creature or Negates DR as if it was a +1 weapon but only against evil creatures.)
This is not ambiguous.
The spell clearly states that it negates the DR of evil creatures.
It IS ambiguous. That's why the two of you disagree.
Can be read as:The weapon negates the damage reduction of evil creatures and is capable of striking evil incorporeal creatures as if it had a +1 enhancement bonus.
The weapon negates the damage reduction of evil creatures, and is capable of striking evil incorporeal creatures as if it had a +1 enhancement bonus.
It is semantically ambiguous.
I think Caliban is right though. It basically lets the weapon be a +1 weapon, but only against evil creatures.
If it is the other way, it breaks the rule about barbarian DR not being negated by anything. An evil barbarians DR would be negated by this spell as KD reads it, but not as Caliban reads it.
I also agree with KD about the "some of these aren't abiguous" thing. I really think you should just present both sides and let the reader decide what is the best way to do it. In doing this, you would also have to mention the sage's rulings because that is what determines whether or not something is a house rule.
--Triad Spikey