No? Do you have a reference point for that? I'd been lead to believe that violating terms of service from installed/used software was not a good thing.
Firstly you're shifting the goalposts here. I assert that a TOS does not replace a signed ownership of copyright. Your point is regarding the violation of terms of service. This thread hasn't been about violating TOS at all.
As for your point, it depends on what you mean by 'not a good thing', what the TOS is and what's being violated. There have been rulings that violating Terms of Use agreements are, and are not, criminal matters. Recent rulings have been something of a slippery slope in the US (and one in particular I could see being cast down by the Supreme Court). I could, for example, create a website and state under the Terms of Use that anyone who accessed it who was not called Vizzini was violating my TOS and, as such in violation of 18 U.S.C. 1030(a)(2)(C). On the other hand, the Lori Drew case saw Judge Wu find that breaking a website's TOS did not automatically mean you had commited a criminal offence (it's a complicated issue, wikipedia's page has a decent summary if you don't want to read the actual ruling).
This is also a pretty broad subject and somewhat out of context. The user, for example, isn't violating the Terms of Use as outlined through the general thread. It's a question of whether the terms of use grants the company copyright ownership of everything created using that software (or, specifically, created and/or stored).
The closest case for this specifically is Powers vs Facebook. http://pub.bna.com/eclr/08cv05780_051109.pdf
The key line is 'Defendants correctly assert that Facebook does not have a copyright on user content'
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