AbdulAlhazred
Legend
To put it even more forcefully: Tolkien himself was NOT obsessed with consistency! In fact it is a matter of record that he wrote and rewrote, sometimes multiple times over, much of his personal foundational lore. During that process he would write a story, and then another one that wasn't consistent with the first, and the rewrite one or both of them, possibly in a more consistent form, and then repeat the whole process again and again. AT NO POINT did he end up with a consistent corpus! If you read the material published in The Silmarillion and in Unfinished Tales, and compare it with LotR and its Appendices, and other collected material there's all sorts of discrepancies. Tolkien himself attributed them, post hoc, to unreliable narrators, mistranslation, revisionism, etc. Christopher Tolkien spent YEARS, no DECADES, laboriously cataloging and studying his father's notes and trying to piece together the most consistent versions of various material, and even resorted to editorial fixes aimed at making sense of some of it. One of the major points of Unfinished Tales and then The History of Middle Earth was actually to publish many of these alternate texts and fragmentary incoherent pieces. They establish thoroughly that there IS NO COHERENT MIDDLE EARTH! Not in Tolkien's mind, it is merely an exercise in creative writing, language construction, and a kind of analysis of the process of myth making. None of this detracts from his classically popular fantasy works in any way, it simply shows them for what they are, imaginings not bound to any of the rules of real world events or history.Appendix A says that "grievous . . . was the parting of Elrond and Arwen, for they were sundered by the Sea and by a doom beyond the end of the world", that "Arwen became as a mortal woman", and finally that Arwen "laid herself to rest upon Cerin Amroth; and there is her green grave, until the world is changed".
You are correct that "At the Grey Havens dwelt Cirdan the Shipwright, and some say he dwells there still, until the Last Ship sets sail into the West." Appendix A also notes that "In the days of the Kings most of the High Elves that still lingered in Middle-earth dwelt with Cirdan or in the seaward lands of Lindon." But Appendix B says that "after the passing of Galadriel in a few years [after the War of the Ring] Celeborn grew weary of his realm and went to Imladris to dwell with the sons of Elrond." I can't find anything in Appendix B that talks about Celeborn taking ship, and I can't find this either in the section of Unfished Tales on Galadriel and Celeborn.
The only Fourth Age ships mentioned in Appendix are the one that took Sam, and then after the death of Aragorn the grey ship build by Legolas in Ithilien that carried him and Gimli "down Anduin and so over Sea".
As is Cirdan's continued dwelling in the Havens.
This may be so. It doesn't make the case for consistency, though. It's part of the case against it!
Well, the "established lore" is what has been written and published, and so in a sense it can't contradict itself: it is what it is. But "things we don't understand" (eg the relationship between, and timelines pertaining to, Galadriel and Celeborn) don't have some objective existence that we strive to uncover: there is no objective reality here that anchors our inquiry.
The fiction is written and our "understanding" flows from that. Consistency to prior "rules" or conceptions doesn't seem to be a particular constraint on JRRT's work.
As I posted upthread, the corruption could - considered in the abstract - manifest in any number of other ways, and from the point of view of setting consistency any would do as well as any other, and indeed consistency might be increased if the Ring either made Gollum more like a Nazgul, or obliterated him with its power.
Pointing out that certain things are exceptions or exceptional doesn't seem to me to refute the case against consistency. It helps make it out.
There's an argument, in my view, that the whole of the Ent "arc" is an instance of this. Fangorn is full of these ancient peoples, and Celeborn and Galadriel live barely a stone's throw from them, and yet Treebeard (Bk VI, ch VI) laments that "It is long, long since we met by stock or by stone"; and earlier (Bk II, ch VIII) Celeborn warns the Fellowship not to "risk becoming entangled in the Forest of Fangorn. That is a strange land, and is now little known." Yet is seems that he and Galadriel know that Ents live there!
But magic - and especially sorcery, the use of spells - is exactly whatever the story needs it to be, and no more. There is no consistent conception that I can see of what sorcery is, or how it works, or what effect it can have. (This contrasts, for instance, with A Wizard of Earthsea.)
The latter.
In that light, your (Pemertons) assertions about Gollum and the effects of the One Ring on him are obvious and simply illustrative of a truth which the man's works abundantly illustrate. Tolkien could have depicted any sort of effect of the Ring, the one he chose was PURELY chosen for its utility in telling a specific story. Even The Hobbit amply illustrates all this, as in 1937 when the book was published the version of the incident with Gollum and the Ring was substantively different from the one presented in later editions! At the time, if you read the original text, it's pretty clear that Gollum is a fairly insignificant figure, serving to illustrate Bilbo's cleverness and little more. The history of the One Ring had not, at that time, even been conceived by Tolkien! Later he used this incident as a jumping off point for LotR, and in his usual habitual way rewrote the incident with Gollum slightly to make it more consistent with the rest of the story! ONLY NOW did Gollum become this ancient creature, bearer of the terrible power of the One Ring. In 1937 he was just a boogyman with an invisibility ring and some nasty habits. We don't really know what in fact Tolkien thought he was, twisted hobbit, strange cave dweller, etc.