I am not sure on this one: If a duskblade who wears heavy armor uses arcane channeling, would arcane spell failure apply?
My reasoning why not:
What is "arcane channeling"? ==> It's a spell and a melee attack. Since you only have "one action" in a standard action one of those two must be a free action. Since the melee attack obviously is not a free action (it costs time to attack with a sword), the spell must be. And spells which are cast as swift/free/immediate actions do not have an arcane spell failure.
What do you think?
The same reasoning would apply to a multiclass wizard/duskblade who uses his wizard spells for channeling.
My reasoning why not:
What is "arcane channeling"? ==> It's a spell and a melee attack. Since you only have "one action" in a standard action one of those two must be a free action. Since the melee attack obviously is not a free action (it costs time to attack with a sword), the spell must be. And spells which are cast as swift/free/immediate actions do not have an arcane spell failure.
What do you think?
The same reasoning would apply to a multiclass wizard/duskblade who uses his wizard spells for channeling.