Mardoc Redcloak said:Common ownership of land and capital is possible in virtually any society that comes to mind.
Not really, unless you apply very vague standards to both. Landholding is not necessarily the same as ownership and even ownership is an imprecise blanket term for a number of relationships. Lords held land for their lieges. They didn't own it. What we think of as land ownership in a commonsense fashion really came into existence in the 18th century after the collapse of chain-of-title systems. Before that, the fee was subject to a number of restrictions based on custom, leading to things like subinfeudination since the "owner" could not actually sell is "property," as title belonged to the Crown (this is technically true today, but land registry severed most title customs). These restrictions were gradually relaxed.
Also, the idea of a watermill as a capitalist institution is . . . novel . . . given that millers were typically tenants who rented according to customary dues.