Dice and Dramatics - Guide to role-playing

Ultramyth said:
I'm glad you asked. I did put some thought into this. Of course in actual history, the role of the church is actually massive. In Renaissance, I'm discussing the more monotheistic orientation of nations, not perhaps limiting nations to belief in the one god, but rather, limiting their national patron god to a single deity.

The focus of the religious is important in a renaissance. It's a big influence. I am thinking about how this applies to polytheist religions, as are found in D&D.

As for the templars involvement. I am aware that the last templars were disolved in 1314 (or was it 1214... I think it's 1314), which is still a century short of even the early italian renaissance (1400s). However, there is a lot of legends of how the templars went underground, and reestablished in scotland.

Anyone who's seen braveheart, they forgot to mention how they really won that hopelessly outnumbered battle - it wasn't flashing the underkilts at the english - it was templar banners flying.

So the templar is actually introduced in this capacity - as an elite, underground more or less secret society, though still with a bad reputation for sorcery and heresy. The whole purpose of prestige classes in the first place was to have sort of special classes for elite 'guilds'. This fact has been lost to a lot of d20 publishers. Even WOTC. I want to get back to making it not so easy to get a prestige class. As Dice and Dramatics may have demonstrated, I prefer roleplaying. So there will be a good story behind them.

Hope that addresses your question.

Ah, I see now, good reasoning. My historian instincts are screaming at the idea of the Templars having become a secret society (it is genuinely rubbish, originating I think due to family links between a Templar Grand Master and an important family in Freemason traditions, which was then rapidly embroidered and developed) but for the purposes of a cool rpg game, it's a great idea :)

(To pick you up on one thing, that the Scots used the Templar banner under William Wallace, I have to say I've never heard that before, and am doubtful of its veracity, especially since IIRC one of the Masters of the English Temple died fighting Wallace. The Templars were still in existance during Wallace's time - I think he died shortly before they were arrested by King Philip the Fair of France in 1307 - and had extensive holdings in England, and the English king had good relations with them. Thus unless the Scots had stolen a Templar banner from one of the areas they looted, and were wielding it to show the English what they had stolen, I can't see why they would have it. I'd love to know what sources you have for that).

Edit: After just a little bit of googling, it seems far more likely that the reason Wallace won the Battle of Stirling Bridge is because, well, he took good tactical advantage of the fact that the English were having to advance over a bridge, never the best way to meet a foe in battle... certainly, I can still see no mentions of a Templar banner.

Erm, sorry for the mini-hijack :(
 
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