That last might be difficult given they ran out of feet to shoot sometime last week...they have to first prove that 1.0a can in fact be revoked, otherwise no copyright was violated. At that point you could theoretically still accept the 1.1 instead of going down the copyright violation route too
agreed, they might shoot themselves in the foot and just prove that the OGL was not needed in the first place
3. The deep-pocketed losing side keeps appealing to higher courts, which in effect restarts the whole process each time.The two main situations which result in multi-year court cases are:
1) Incredibly complex litigations usually involving high tens of millions to billions of dollars of potential damages, and complex situations which need a lot of proof and scientific or forensic accounting evidence or both.
2) Not actually a single court cases, rather some basically vexatious litigant keeps suing and suing. There is zero possibility of a corporation doing this because the self-PR damage and potential other damage is insane. Especially as you usually have to be a litigant-in-person because lawyers representing you would get disbarred.
Unless the judge rules otherwise.The costs could be significant but this is the US so you're not usually paying the other side's costs (for better or worse).
I am just curious: assuming the OGL 1.1 or 2.0 goes into effect and says that you can't make new products using OGL 1.0a, but I go ahead and publish a -- say, just for argument -- 5E compatible monster book under the OGL 1.0a. What happens (assuming WotC notices of course)?
And by "what happens" I mean "what is the series of events that follows this move".
It's unlikely to get to an argument about copyright, for the following reasons:Next step would probably be to try and get an injunction to stop you selling your products, I think.
That won't succeed as often as people might think.
Then once that's been determined they to take you to court and probably make a copyright case against you.
I think that's where it gets a lot more dangerous for WotC, because potentially they could fail to prove they have copyright on a bunch of stuff people were acting like they did.
This seems right enough to me.So just because things have gotten a little confused and crossed over, lets summarise the points so far.
We have a hypothetical timeline in which the following happens in sequence:
- WotC announces they are deauthorizing OGL 1.0a
- A publisher publishes something new under OGL 1.0a anyway
- WotC sends a C&D to publisher.
- Publisher responds they have no intention of either C-ing or D-ing.
- WotC takes publisher to court for infringing their copyright
- Publisher presents Exhibit A, OGL 1.0a as their evidence they had a license.
This now leaves us at the stage where WotC have to show they actually have the power to revoke or deauthorize that license from their licensee, and the mechanism they used to do so.
If someone sends a C&D that rests on what you believe is a mistaken claim of right, then typically I think you (or your lawyer on your behalf) replies explaining that the letter-writer does not have the right that they are asserting.I have no idea about how you can actually legally respond to a C&D that says the sender has rights they don't actually have, so I've put it as a possibility rather than a certainty
I would imagine there must be some legal backlash to a C&D that has no weight, or we'd all be sending them to everyone all the time... (wait, was I supposed to be sending them? Nobody told me!!!)
And lets also remember the 1.0a license has that 30 day remedy period. Of course, if the license is not valid, neither is that remedy period. But if it is valid, WotC just violated the terms themselves if they didn't try to use that clause first. And if they did use that clause first, they are presumably admitting the license is valid.
I don't think this is right, though. If WotC is asserting that there is no licence because they have unilaterally revoked it, then they are not going to be relying on the licence terms. And they are not alleging a breach of contract or licence rights; they are alleging copyright infringement. Once Reynard pleads the contract in his defence, section 13 is likewise irrelevant as Reynard is not conceding that there is any licence breach (and if in fact Reynard had breached the licence I think that would weaken his defence quite a bit).At the very least, however, in this specific case I would think likely sue for breach of contract due to them not following the terms of the 1.0a license that requires them to give you notification and 30 days to fix. Whether you would win is another matter, and depends of course on whether that 1.0a license is still valid and authorized. It looks like whatever possible route is taken, it has to come back to that.
You only have to stop selling their work if an injunction is issued against you. If that happens, and you don't conform to the injunction, then you are violating a court order and so are in contempt of court.Let's say we get to court. Does the act of suing me mean I have to stop? Does WotC have to ask a judge to tell me to stop? Would the judge do that? Would I get charged with contempt if I didn't, or some other crime?
I think it's probably harder for a plaintiff than a defendant to drag things out. I mean, from a formal point of view, what is their reason for not just brining on their matter?I'm not a law guy (Unless it happened on Boston Law, LA law, of Suits) but in other threads people had examples of much more serous (life and death) cases going 5 years then being settled before it would have been done... so I guess it depends but it CAN be years
So just because things have gotten a little confused and crossed over, lets summarise the points so far.
We have a hypothetical timeline in which the following happens in sequence:
- WotC announces they are deauthorizing OGL 1.0a
- A publisher publishes something new under OGL 1.0a anyway
- WotC sends a C&D to publisher.
- Publisher responds they have no intention of either C-ing or D-ing.
- WotC takes publisher to court for infringing their copyright
- Publisher presents Exhibit A, OGL 1.0a as their evidence they had a license.
So any 3PP has to ask themselves if it’s worth it? Instead of producing under the 1.0 OGL and risking litigation, why not either publish under 1.1 or else (more likely) just publish using a different system altogether?
I am just curious: assuming the OGL 1.1 or 2.0 goes into effect and says that you can't make new products using OGL 1.0a, but I go ahead and publish a -- say, just for argument -- 5E compatible monster book under the OGL 1.0a. What happens (assuming WotC notices of course)?
And by "what happens" I mean "what is the series of events that follows this move".
Note: I'm actually looking for an informed opinion on the subject by people familiar with the way IP law and corporations work. Thanks.