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If you aren't buying magic items, where will you spend your gold?
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<blockquote data-quote="steeldragons" data-source="post: 6445513" data-attributes="member: 92511"><p>That's some really nice creative siting there. The "open market" is mentioned in relation to the PCs trying to sell SCROLLS. Nothing else. No other magic item section says anything about an "open market" for them (not even potions or rings or wands). </p><p></p><p>That same page you cherry-picked "open market" from says, quite explicitly, "Gold piece sale values are the usual sums <strong>which characters <em>will be paid</em> for magic items</strong>, and if so sold, the x.p. award should be based on the selling price of the items, not the x.p. value. Also remember that a character is assumed to retain an item, thus getting the low x.p. value for it, if he or she sells it to another player character." <emphasis mine></p><p></p><p>Nowhere, no where, is there an indication that the gp sale price is for PCs <em>to buy</em> items. No mention that player's should use the gold sale value as their price tag for acquiring objects. No assumption in the game or direction for the DM that there are magic objects available for sale <em>to</em> the PCs.</p><p></p><p>Just knock it off. Stop making it sound like this has "always been around" in D&D. It's a 3e and 4e construct. I'm not trying to make an edition war/flame/thing here. Just accuracy. WotC brought it in and made it an integral part of their games.</p><p></p><p>If it was done in 1e, it wasn't "common" and most certainly was not intended, according to what is in the DMG, as part of the game assumptions. Site the editions that you are really talking about and stop making it sound like "the majority of editions did this, so 5e needs to give me this too."</p><p></p><p>1e didn't. [Removed due to confusion]. Them's the facts. Sorry.</p><p></p><p>[EDIT] So was magic item buying in 2e or not? You said before it was "discouraged" and repeatedly mention 1,3,4e. But 2e had a section about it?[/edit]</p></blockquote><p></p>
[QUOTE="steeldragons, post: 6445513, member: 92511"] That's some really nice creative siting there. The "open market" is mentioned in relation to the PCs trying to sell SCROLLS. Nothing else. No other magic item section says anything about an "open market" for them (not even potions or rings or wands). That same page you cherry-picked "open market" from says, quite explicitly, "Gold piece sale values are the usual sums [B]which characters [I]will be paid[/I] for magic items[/B], and if so sold, the x.p. award should be based on the selling price of the items, not the x.p. value. Also remember that a character is assumed to retain an item, thus getting the low x.p. value for it, if he or she sells it to another player character." <emphasis mine> Nowhere, no where, is there an indication that the gp sale price is for PCs [I]to buy[/I] items. No mention that player's should use the gold sale value as their price tag for acquiring objects. No assumption in the game or direction for the DM that there are magic objects available for sale [I]to[/I] the PCs. Just knock it off. Stop making it sound like this has "always been around" in D&D. It's a 3e and 4e construct. I'm not trying to make an edition war/flame/thing here. Just accuracy. WotC brought it in and made it an integral part of their games. If it was done in 1e, it wasn't "common" and most certainly was not intended, according to what is in the DMG, as part of the game assumptions. Site the editions that you are really talking about and stop making it sound like "the majority of editions did this, so 5e needs to give me this too." 1e didn't. [Removed due to confusion]. Them's the facts. Sorry. [EDIT] So was magic item buying in 2e or not? You said before it was "discouraged" and repeatedly mention 1,3,4e. But 2e had a section about it?[/edit] [/QUOTE]
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If you aren't buying magic items, where will you spend your gold?
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