We are told that the GM only asks for a D20 test when the outcome is in doubt (ie, there is chance of success and a chance of failure). We are also told that a natural 1 is always a failure, and a natural 20 is always a success.

So, under what situation would a nat 20 be a success without the "autosuccess rule" AND the GM asked for a roll anyway? If say, he determines that a character needs to roll 27 on the D20 to succeed, he's supposed to not ask for a roll. So no possibility of rolling 20. If there is a possibility of success, 20 will already include a success.

Same, in reverse, with 1.

EDIT: changed the title to show that my question wasn't related to the case where the DM disallows a roll altogether (it was a side thought) but to WHEN (and in that case HOW OFTEN) does the "auto-success on 20" change the outcome of a task.

So, under what situation would a nat 20 be a success without the "autosuccess rule" AND the GM asked for a roll anyway? If say, he determines that a character needs to roll 27 on the D20 to succeed, he's supposed to not ask for a roll. So no possibility of rolling 20. If there is a possibility of success, 20 will already include a success.

Same, in reverse, with 1.

EDIT: changed the title to show that my question wasn't related to the case where the DM disallows a roll altogether (it was a side thought) but to WHEN (and in that case HOW OFTEN) does the "auto-success on 20" change the outcome of a task.

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