Sunder Question

[anhar]

Ok so this came up in a game a few days ago.

I remember in 3.0, there was a rule that a magical weapon couldn't be sundered except by a weapon of equal or greater plus.

Does that rule exist in 3.5? I can't find it, but I may not be looking in the right place.

On top of that, the item that was sundered was a +2 Cursed Berserking Bastard Sword.

Cursed items generally have to be gotten rid of in specific ways, (remove curse, etc) but I couldn't find anything that said they couldn't be broken like normal. They aren't artifacts after all.

Is there a specific rule against this? and if not, would you allow your PC's to permanently sunder a cursed item?

 

[3d6]

Does that rule exist in 3.5?

Nope. Instead, magical weapons have greater hardness and hit points. Every +1 enhancement bonus grants +1 hardness and +10 hit points.

 

[Sithobi1]

+2 hardness.

 

[anhar]

well the HP are nice, but the hardness still doesn't apply vs. adamantine

 

[Hypersmurf]

You can find the "greater enhancement bonus" rule in 3.5 if you look hard enough, but it was corrected in the errata to the core books.

-Hyp.

 

[Hypersmurf]

well the HP are nice, but the hardness still doesn't apply vs. adamantine

It does if you can get it up to 20.

An adamantine axe will go through a +4 longsword (hardness 18) like butter. (Well, butter with 45 hit points.) But a +5 longsword (hardness 20) will resist an adamantine weapon just like it would anything else.

-Hyp.

 

[Seeten]

An Adamantine Longsword +3 has 26 hardness.

Thats pretty sweet.

 

[pallandrome]

So, here's a question, does a +1 flaming longsword count as +1 or +2 for determining hardness?

 

[GorTeX]

only the enhancement bonus helps, so +1

 

[Dross]

Cursed items generally have to be gotten rid of in specific ways, (remove curse, etc) but I couldn't find anything that said they couldn't be broken like normal. They aren't artifacts after all.

Is there a specific rule against this? and if not, would you allow your PC's to permanently sunder a cursed item?

My take on this is that the curse is still functioning. The one cursed would still want the item, and should take steps to have it fixed. Just because it is broken does not remore the curse. So if the curse is to have that weapon be the only one used and it is broken, then the person would still use the broken (cursed) weapon to kill their opponents

I however cannot cite a specific ruling other than: It is not stated as one of the methods to remove the curse.