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D&D 5E The Intent of the Forbiddance Spell

Syntallah

First Post
In the last paragraph of the Forbiddance spell, it says: "If you cast forbiddance every day for 30 days in the same location, the spell lasts until it is dispelled, and the material components are consumed on the last casting."

Do you think the intent of the spell is:

- a) only 1000gp of dust is consumed, or
- b) 30000gp of dust is consumed


I know what the strict RAW reading is, but I am curious if this spell is supposed to be a 'meh, who cares, it's 1000gp' OR 'whoa, this is a significant investment'...
 

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AaronOfBarbaria

Adventurer
A is correct by the way the rules are written - but that doesn't mean it is "meh, who cares, it's 1,000 gp." because it isn't just 1,000 gp, it is 1,000 gp that you spent on a specific not all that common component, or a 1,000 gp quantity of rubies that you found and took the time to crush into dust (or maybe an even larger quantity of rubies you found and cut so that the 1,000 gp quantity of dust is a byproduct).

The monetary cost, combined with the stay in one place for a month cost, makes the spell's permanent version "woah, this is a significant investment."
 

Celtavian

Dragon Lord
A is correct by the way the rules are written - but that doesn't mean it is "meh, who cares, it's 1,000 gp." because it isn't just 1,000 gp, it is 1,000 gp that you spent on a specific not all that common component, or a 1,000 gp quantity of rubies that you found and took the time to crush into dust (or maybe an even larger quantity of rubies you found and cut so that the 1,000 gp quantity of dust is a byproduct).

The monetary cost, combined with the stay in one place for a month cost, makes the spell's permanent version "woah, this is a significant investment."

And it's dispellable. So any class or monster with dispel magic has a chance to get rid of it. And some of them will get rid of it automatically. Don't want something like that to cost too much or no one would use it.
 


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