• The VOIDRUNNER'S CODEX is coming! Explore new worlds, fight oppressive empires, fend off fearsome aliens, and wield deadly psionics with this comprehensive boxed set expansion for 5E and A5E!

A discussion of metagame concepts in game design

Ovinomancer

No flips for you!
What is a language, if not its stock in trade of phrases? A simple formal definition of a language is a vocabulary plus syntax - and in the case of English Shakespeare contributed to both!
Bafflegab. That's like saying this post contributes to the creation of English.

If you're a strong Platonist who thinks that there's no such thing as inventing new mathematica techniques, or improving upon then, then I guess you would treat is a trivial consequence that science can't improve maths.
I am not. I personally do not believe math is discovered, but I don't claim to be right on this matter -- there are other opinions.

The claim that maths doesn't make new maths, it follows maths I find very dubious. Work on the calculus was intimately connected to the need for better mathematical techniques in scientific enquiry. Likewise work on the foundations of geometry, as I mentioned. Describing it in a fairly abstract way, one could point to both an "agenda setting" function of science in relation to mathematical endeavour, and also pointing to concrete problems in need of new techniques or new solutions.
That's because I said science doesn't create new maths, it follows math. Changing the words could easily lead to confusion.

Not really. Disagreement isnt necessarily evidence that something is not objective. Mediaeval geographers disagreed about what was on the south side of the equator - that doesn't mean that there was no objective fact of the matter.
No, it's not necessary -- we could all agree on something and still be objectively wrong. It is, however, extremely indicative of subjective definitions. Given you cannot show an objectively correct definition of good, I'm going to rest my case.

It's arguable that there is no systematic and institutionalised method in philosophy for settling the question - though that was also true of those geographers, given that they were debating before scientific geography had really been invented.

But while that lack of method goes to the question of whether moral philosophy is a science, it doesn't show that there is no objective truth.
Nice move of the pea -- I never said there was no possibility of objective truth, I said we're unable to objectively determine it. What I believe is good differs from every other persons' definition of good. Case in point, even the philosophers that share a general definition argue over particular instances. The existence of an objective truth does not mean we can know it. Then, for all human intents and purposes, there exists no objective definition.

What is good is a question we've always had. We're no closer to the answer today.
 

log in or register to remove this ad

Maxperson

Morkus from Orkus
The claim that maths doesn't make new maths, it follows maths I find very dubious. Work on the calculus was intimately connected to the need for better mathematical techniques in scientific enquiry. Likewise work on the foundations of geometry, as I mentioned. Describing it in a fairly abstract way, one could point to both an "agenda setting" function of science in relation to mathematical endeavour, and also pointing to concrete problems in need of new techniques or new solutions.

I think what he's getting at is that the math has always been there, even from a time before we knew about math at all. Calculus wasn't finding new math, but rather finding math that was new to us, but which already existed. So it was a discovery from following math where it lead, rather than making up a new math.
 

Kobold Boots

Banned
Banned
That was my point -- science speaks math, like Shakespeare spoke English. The medium is not the same as the art/science.

Thanks. Thought that was the case but just making sure.

To what I think was @pemerton 's point, but perhaps slightly more on point. Science sometimes becomes informed by math through direct or indirect changes to the mathematics underpinning materials patents and other derivative works. If the math changes that makes one material possible such that a "better" material exists for the existing work or another material becomes possible for some other task.. then mathematics directly changes what's possible with science.

Likewise (wholly speculative, I admit) if scientists were to find something they could not reverse engineer due to existing tech (ex. finding an iPhone back in 1977) but the tech were something that they could reasonably determine function of. (printed circuitry as compared to hand sautered) then they'd know that what they found was possible, but not within the current realm of materials or capacity. In this case, science informs mathematicians that they're missing something and the collaboration ensues.

My apologies for the horrible futuristic reference. But my point is that no discipline exists in an absolute vacuum. Math certainly has a one-way four lane highway towards influencing science. Science still has a dirt road back to math even if you have to look hard to find it.

..and honestly there's probably a better example once we look back to history and find civilizations that were more advanced than others. (edit - and while I realize that to build the pyramids, egyptians had to have certain math under wraps.. that doesn't necessarily mean that random civ X had access to the egyptian math when they discovered the ruined pyramid and started rev engineering)
 
Last edited:

Ovinomancer said:
Shakespeare didn't improve English, he created phrases and uses of it that have goid use.
There are rather more than 2000 words which are unattested before Shakespeare; some were already likely in current use, but the vast majority were first employed by him – there are consistent formation patterns. He drew on loan words, back-formed hundreds of words with previously uncombined prepositions, verbalized nouns and invented words from whole cloth. In his writing, he combined words in ways more complex and nuanced, expressive and poetic, than previously imagined.

I’m interested in what you think it takes to “improve” a language, or whether such improvement is even possible. For example, Joseph Tito ordered a consistent spelling, alphabet and phraseology in Serbo-Croatian; did he “improve” the language?
 

Ratskinner

Adventurer
Scientifically define "good." You'll find it's a subjective preference.

I agree. Fortunately, enough humans can usually agree on the basics to form complex societies and sit around debating this stuff and doing science, etc. Is that subjective? Yup. But we generally agree (enough) on many things that are subjective or matters of taste, this is no different.

Inductive reasoning (although science might be considered a form of inductive reasoning). Deductive reasoning. Consensus building (for moral, social, and political issues, frex). Philosophy. And, no, the scientific method was designed to do hypothesis testing. There's nothing that prevents rather wild hypothesis.

"Prevents" a wild hypothesis? Sure nothing prevents someone from proposing one. But the scientific method is about finding out which ones are false and rejecting them. I mean, hypothesis testing is how science comes closer to objective "truth".

As far as the rest goes...Reasoning + evidence approximates science. Remove the evidence part...well philosophy and reason in a vacuum have never proven themselves good at coming up with "truths" about reality, AFAICT. "Consensus Building" by itself? I don't see how that can determine anything non-trivially objective about reality at all (beyond "we all agree X"). That is, until you add the evidence and science part back in.

What would your hypothesis be? "Science is the best tool to discover all truth?" What's the experiment? What's the conclusion? I'm saying it can't, all you have to do is prove it once and I'm wrong. Conversely, I cannot prove a negative. The burden here is on the side claiming it can define itself.

Whoa, okay. A lot going on here. And I think you've poorly-defined some things here, as well as mashed some things together.

What would your hypothesis be? "Science is the best tool to discover all truth?" What's the experiment? What's the conclusion?

...first off, science can be done by observation, not necessarily experiment. To grossly oversimplify: you need to make predictions that can be falsified by further observation and then go see if you can falsify them. If you don't accept that, then you're throwing out astronomy, paleontology, and I'm sure a few other fields as well.

"Science is the best tool to discover all truth?" includes the unwarranted assumption that all truth is discoverable. So, at the very least, I would reduce the statement to "Science is the best tool to discover truth." I would also go one step further, given my druthers, and substitute "the nature of reality" for "truth". "Truth" tends to be rather fuzzy in modern English, where we can use it to cover
"valid" for an argument as well as "true" for a statement. An argument can be valid without being true. But I digress...I would toss in "objective" as well for "Science is the best tool to discover the nature of objective reality." "Science" is also a bit fuzzy, but I'm content to let it ride on the understanding that we mean "people practicing some form of the scientific method."

This would be, I think rather obviously, a question to approach observationally, rather than experimentally. Unless I'm misreading you, it would appear that we both accept that science can discover at least some objective truths about reality. So we don't have to prove that.

So, what characteristics can we look for in a human endeavor that we can hypothesize come from its ability to discover objective reality? (Assuming such a reality exists, for you philosophy types.)

First off, I submit that, like multiple moths to a single flame, such an endeavor would necessarily be what I call convergent (others might use the term consilient). That is to say, wherever you start, valid methods of determining any objective reality will necessarily tend to converge on a singular description of that reality. Furthermore, endeavors that are better at it will do so faster than those which are worse at it. Science has this property. History didn't have it until science weighed in (and may still not have it, to hear some of my friends in the field talk). Religion?...nope. Philosophy? A little tougher, but I think generally no. The arts?...heavens no, and also "angry orange subtraction" for you Dadaists out there. Politics....no. If anything, most of these endeavors demonstrate divergence in that two groups/traditions starting from the same place end up trying to kill each other over later disagreements. Mathematics...I tend to say, No-ish. Not so much because mathematicians would disagree on the field, but they aren't really trying to create such a model (to my understanding, anyway). To some extent, that describes most of these fields.

Now, does that prove that there is no better human endeavor for discovering objective truth? Only to the extent that you accept that I've exhausted all human endeavors and agree with my assessments of them.

I'm saying it can't, all you have to do is prove it once and I'm wrong.

If science (or math), can't then I don't know what will. At which point, I call into question the "truth" of things that science can't address.

The burden here is on the side claiming it can define itself.

The burden here is on the...what? How do you think...? Hunh? I honestly have no idea what this could mean.

You're confusing subjective policy decisions with science, or are you trying to claim political parties are using science to determine which science research areas to defund? I'm certainly not at all claiming that politics cannot impact the priorities on where to spend money, I'm explicitly saying science cannot provide those priorities. Your statement above tends to agree with me.

You are reversing my argument/intention. I was merely objecting to your claim: "Science is useless for moral, social, ethical, and political issues -- there's nothing to measure, there." If science is totally irrelevant to moral, social, ethical issues, there is never a need for a church to arrest Galileo, there is no reason to object to teaching evolution in schools.

As to your question, "are you trying to claim political parties are using science to determine which science research areas to defund?" the cynic in me would bet money that a lot of social science research goes into formulating the opinions and policies of national parties and politicians. We certainly know it goes into electioneering and redistricting efforts.

Mathematics is the language of science so it's hard to go from science improving mathematics.

Computers (dependent upon scientific understanding) have permitted many rather famous "brute force" proofs within my lifetime that would have been unthinkable undertakings just a few decades ago. I would include the increased ability to communicate between mathematicians as well. So, yes, science has improved mathematics as a human endeavor.

This is like saying Shakespeare made the English language better rather than just using it really damn well.

I think [MENTION=42582]pemerton[/MENTION] addressed this nicely.

Science hasn't weighed in, ever, on the golden rule. What would that experiment look like?

There are many ongoing observations and experiments with primates to examine the origins and nature of human moral sense. I'm also not sure what makes you think the golden rule isn't subjective, or that science couldn't "weigh in on it." Here are a list of questions about the Golden Rule that I think science could take a crack at answering:

Why do so many human societies express some approximation of the Golden Rule?
Is the Golden Rule (or some approximation) instinctive to humans?
If so, to what extent?
How did that evolve?
What other social species seem to follow a "Golden Rule" similar to humans and what ones don't?
- why and how?


Science avoids philosophy like the plague -- nothing to measure so how could you experiment?

And yet, so many scientists write philosophy books wherein they disparage philosophy....
 

Ratskinner

Adventurer
The entirety of your posts supports what I said, though. Stem cell research doesn't care about morality or politics. Neither does research on global warming. Not sure what you mean by gun as public health. They bump against moral and political issues when people are morally opposed to science, or politically opposed to it as with global warming, but the science itself is neither moral nor political. I don't think anyone here is saying that science doesn't run afoul of people who are basing their positions on morals or politics. As you say, some scientists have been killed for it.

I think we see the same things, but are interpreting them differently. How can science run afoul of them, if it is not addressing moral positions? The thing is, "moral" (as in "moral question") in this case, is not a stable target, and just because a scientifically minded person wouldn't consider something a moral issue doesn't mean it isn't one. Is the Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection a completely amoral statement about reality or is it the most evil satanic immoral thing you can ever teach a child? The answer depends on who is asked, not some inherent property of scientific results, AFAICT. I don't think we can excuse something from being a "moral issue", just because it was not intended as such. Nor can we exclude something from scientific examination merely because we view it as a moral issue. We may, in deference to our proclivities, decide not to pursue certain courses of inquiry for what we deem "moral" reasons, but that is a separate question from whether science can address moral questions or morality as a whole.
 

Ovinomancer

No flips for you!
I agree. Fortunately, enough humans can usually agree on the basics to form complex societies and sit around debating this stuff and doing science, etc. Is that subjective? Yup. But we generally agree (enough) on many things that are subjective or matters of taste, this is no different.
Yes, ergo the better method for defining moral good is social, not scientific. What you're doing here is reification -- the swapping of one thing for the other and then pretending their the same. Science done on social definitions of moral good aren't actually addressing objective moral good -- you've swapped in a subjective understanding and then pretended that since you've invoked Science! that it's actually science. You've forgotten that the basis of your effort isn't observation of reality, is subjective definition of it.


"Prevents" a wild hypothesis? Sure nothing prevents someone from proposing one. But the scientific method is about finding out which ones are false and rejecting them. I mean, hypothesis testing is how science comes closer to objective "truth".
Yes.

As far as the rest goes...Reasoning + evidence approximates science. Remove the evidence part...well philosophy and reason in a vacuum have never proven themselves good at coming up with "truths" about reality, AFAICT. "Consensus Building" by itself? I don't see how that can determine anything non-trivially objective about reality at all (beyond "we all agree X"). That is, until you add the evidence and science part back in.
No. Science is the method. Period. Reasoning + evidence (I'll assume you mean observations) isn't the method, ergo not science. This kind of thing is exactly what I'm talking about -- so long as the title Science! is applied, the actual means and subjective bases are ignored. You do yourself a disservice as you're allowing yourself to believe that the outcome is much more certain than it should be.

Whoa, okay. A lot going on here. And I think you've poorly-defined some things here, as well as mashed some things together.

This is claiming there's a problem on my side without actually stating the problem. You're dismissing, not discussing. If you're confused as to what I meant, point out where and I can elucidate. Claiming I've made an error without stating the error, though, is handwaving.

...first off, science can be done by observation, not necessarily experiment. To grossly oversimplify: you need to make predictions that can be falsified by further observation and then go see if you can falsify them. If you don't accept that, then you're throwing out astronomy, paleontology, and I'm sure a few other fields as well.
What is it you're observing, then, if not an experiment?

Question -- are all ants red?
Research -- I've seen ants in my backyard and they appear red
Hypothesis -- all ants are read
Experiment Design -- collect many ants and observe their color
Conduct Experiment -- I collect 100 ants from my backyard and observe them
Analysis -- all the ants I observe are red.
Conclusion -- hypothesis not disproven
Refine -- collect ants form more locations

Observation is part of experimentation -- so long as design is done prior to observation. You can't observe a bunch of things and go back to see what fits -- you cannot be sure you collected the necessary data or noticed possible confounders.


"Science is the best tool to discover all truth?" includes the unwarranted assumption that all truth is discoverable. So, at the very least, I would reduce the statement to "Science is the best tool to discover truth." I would also go one step further, given my druthers, and substitute "the nature of reality" for "truth". "Truth" tends to be rather fuzzy in modern English, where we can use it to cover

"valid" for an argument as well as "true" for a statement. An argument can be valid without being true. But I digress...I would toss in "objective" as well for "Science is the best tool to discover the nature of objective reality." "Science" is also a bit fuzzy, but I'm content to let it ride on the understanding that we mean "people practicing some form of the scientific method."

This would be, I think rather obviously, a question to approach observationally, rather than experimentally. Unless I'm misreading you, it would appear that we both accept that science can discover at least some objective truths about reality. So we don't have to prove that.

So, what characteristics can we look for in a human endeavor that we can hypothesize come from its ability to discover objective reality? (Assuming such a reality exists, for you philosophy types.)

First off, I submit that, like multiple moths to a single flame, such an endeavor would necessarily be what I call convergent (others might use the term consilient). That is to say, wherever you start, valid methods of determining any objective reality will necessarily tend to converge on a singular description of that reality. Furthermore, endeavors that are better at it will do so faster than those which are worse at it. Science has this property. History didn't have it until science weighed in (and may still not have it, to hear some of my friends in the field talk). Religion?...nope. Philosophy? A little tougher, but I think generally no. The arts?...heavens no, and also "angry orange subtraction" for you Dadaists out there. Politics....no. If anything, most of these endeavors demonstrate divergence in that two groups/traditions starting from the same place end up trying to kill each other over later disagreements. Mathematics...I tend to say, No-ish. Not so much because mathematicians would disagree on the field, but they aren't really trying to create such a model (to my understanding, anyway). To some extent, that describes most of these fields.

Now, does that prove that there is no better human endeavor for discovering objective truth? Only to the extent that you accept that I've exhausted all human endeavors and agree with my assessments of them.
I do not agree. I don't agree that science converges on objective truth -- that's a belief of yours and absent proof. There's some good evidence that science self-corrects error given enough time, but it's equally possible that some objective truths are unknowable to us. The result of moral good, for instance.

And, on the topic of other means of inquiry converging, they most certainly can. The golden rule, for instance, seems a strong point of convergence for many areas of study: religion, politics, philosophy. Most of the world seems to have converged on the idea that slavery is evil. There's convergence in other means of inquiry as well -- this is not a unique feature to science, if science even has such a feature.


If science (or math), can't then I don't know what will. At which point, I call into question the "truth" of things that science can't address.
Are you presenting that some things, like morality, do not actually exist because you can't science them? There's some nice philosophy on that, you may enjoy it.


The burden here is on the...what? How do you think...? Hunh? I honestly have no idea what this could mean.
That if you claim that a thing can be done, it is your burden to show it can be done, not mine to show it can't. Similarly, if I claim a thing cannot be done, the burden is on others to do it and prove me wrong. This is entirely because it's impossible to prove a negative.


You are reversing my argument/intention. I was merely objecting to your claim: "Science is useless for moral, social, ethical, and political issues -- there's nothing to measure, there." If science is totally irrelevant to moral, social, ethical issues, there is never a need for a church to arrest Galileo, there is no reason to object to teaching evolution in schools.
No, you making a reification mistake. Spending on science isn't a science issue, it's a political one. Science cannot speak to which questions should be addressed, as that's a policy issue, not a scientific one. Choices of where money is spent to achieve policy goals has absolutely nothing to do with science as a tool or means of inquiry. It does, however, affect people that employ science as a means of inquiry.


As to your question, "are you trying to claim political parties are using science to determine which science research areas to defund?" the cynic in me would bet money that a lot of social science research goes into formulating the opinions and policies of national parties and politicians. We certainly know it goes into electioneering and redistricting efforts.
Given that science cannot speak to proper policy, as that's a political question, I disagree. Some social research may provide inputs, but, really, most of it should be strongly distrusted as it isn't science. Issues of bias, improper collection, and p-hacking have resulted in less than 1/4 of all social science experiments being able to be repeated successfully. And the ones that are usually successfully repeated are the ones that mostly confirm well known phenomenon. The vast majority of the new stuff just fails in replication.

Largely, I think this is because social scientists are taught cookbook stats and think that all statistical methods are valid regardless of data input and don't understand the fundamental errors they're causes. Most statistics are only valid in very narrow conditions, and, even then, the dangers of reification and overconfidence abound.


Computers (dependent upon scientific understanding) have permitted many rather famous "brute force" proofs within my lifetime that would have been unthinkable undertakings just a few decades ago. I would include the increased ability to communicate between mathematicians as well. So, yes, science has improved mathematics as a human endeavor.
You're confusing cause and effect, here. Brute force methods are not new or dependent on science. Computers, a product of science experiment and hard-working, heroic engineers making science actually useful, just allowed faster use of existing brute force methods. Science (mostly engineers) provided a new means of doing an old problem.

I think [MENTION=42582]pemerton[/MENTION] addressed this nicely.
I'm already disagreeing with him in other posts.


There are many ongoing observations and experiments with primates to examine the origins and nature of human moral sense. I'm also not sure what makes you think the golden rule isn't subjective, or that science couldn't "weigh in on it." Here are a list of questions about the Golden Rule that I think science could take a crack at answering:
Of course the golden rule is subjective. How I want to be treated is solely my subjective belief.*

Why do so many human societies express some approximation of the Golden Rule?
Is the Golden Rule (or some approximation) instinctive to humans?
If so, to what extent?
How did that evolve?
What other social species seem to follow a "Golden Rule" similar to humans and what ones don't?
- why and how?
Those are just questions. That science can answer them is your belief, not fact. You've decided to believe Science! is the tool to answer all questions, and so look at any question like a nail to be hit by Science! I'm saying you shouldn't do that, you're limiting yourself to a narrow belief structure unsupported by reality and forming dogma around it.



And yet, so many scientists write philosophy books wherein they disparage philosophy....
Sigh. Scientists are people, not science. When a scientist is writing philosophy books, he's not doing science, he's done philosophy. People are complex and capable organism -- they're not restricted to only one role or passion in society.


*Interestingly, I can use the scientific method to refine my subjective preferences. I can ask if I like kicking puppies, for instance, design and run a puppy-kicking experiment, observe that I actually don't like it and that I also don't like the social fallout for doing it, falsify my hypothesis that I like kicking puppies, and then move on to refine my question to finding out if I like cuddling with puppies. Spoiler alert -- I love it.

The point here, though, is that science cannot tell me what I like. It can be a tool to discover what I like, but at all times that discovery is limited to only me. And, really, this experiment is very limited to falsifying the specific claim. If I ran another experiment on whether I like drinking sweet tea (yes) I couldn't compare these results at all. Even if I added a scale of 1 to 10 on each separately and rated cuddling puppies at a 8 and drinking sweet tea at a 6 (respectively), I can't say I'd rather cuddle a puppy than drink sweet tea or that I'd enjoy doing both at the same time even more (nope, messy). It's very important that you don't extrapolate results past the experiment and the specific question asked. This is, however, done all the time and the recent trend of science by press release is very disheartening.
 

The social sciences have major issues with how they do business right now (medicine has many of these issues as well).
Preaching to the choir.

Fundamentally, though, they can't avoid many of these issues as they're trying to work with data that's inherently subjective to begin with. There's some good work, psychology has had some success for instance, but even there any approach is at best a 50/50 and most psychologists bring multiple approaches to find which works best on a given subject. That's because you can't just measure and model people's subjective beliefs and wants. You can't measure happiness. Setting aside you can't define it, no matter what definition you use people will have a subjective opinion of where they are in relation to that definition. Dressing things up in statistics does not science make.
You're dismissing, not discussing. When someone like Nate Silver can statistically model political preferences well enough to accurately predict the results of all fifty states in a US presidential election, that sure looks like science to me.
 

pemerton

Legend
The absence of disagreement about the nature of good, or moral truth, does not self-evidently prove (i) that these are not objective matters, nor (ii) that any candidate account or definition of them is not objectively true.
[MENTION=6688937]Ratskinner[/MENTION] mentioned consilience as a marker of knowledge. The absence of consilience in moral philosophy is relevant to the question of whether or not moral philosophy is a science. And it might even be used as part of an argument that there is no objective truth there (eg one candidate explanation for the absence of consilience is that there is no truth for enquirers to converge on). But being an element of a possible argument is not self-evident demonstration.

Perhaps it could be argued that consilience is constitutive of their being an "objective definition", but I'm not sure what that argument is.
 

[MENTION=6688937]Ratskinner[/MENTION] mentioned consilience as a marker of knowledge. The absence of consilience in moral philosophy is relevant to the question of whether or not moral philosophy is a science. And it might even be used as part of an argument that there is no objective truth there (eg one candidate explanation for the absence of consilience is that there is no truth for enquirers to converge on). But being an element of a possible argument is not self-evident demonstration.

Perhaps it could be argued that consilience is constitutive of their being an "objective definition", but I'm not sure what that argument is.
"What have I got in my pocket?"

This thread could go on for a hundred years discussing the question, and no consilience would emerge. You guys simply lack the epistemic access to make any progress towards an answer. Yet it seems silly to claim that there is no objective answer.
 

Remove ads

Top