nikolai said:
I make out that his complain is the "use of the term "broadsword" to denote all broad-bladed European swords" when he thinks "it should imply a basket-hilted sword of the late 1600’s to early 1900’s".
Hm. You and I don't seem to be reading the same article.
I make out his complaint to be that the term "broadsword" has been used by different people to mean different things, and that some uses are technically precise and correct and some are not, and that leads to misapprehension.
I mean, think about it for a second - imagine someone sees a reference and physical description of the late 1600 to 1800 cavalry broadsword. Then, the same reader sees a reference to a "broadsword" of the 1400's (or a pseudo-Medieval), without precise descriptions, as you might see in a popular piece of fiction. Reader then thinks the 1800's type sword is around 400 years earlier, and gets an altogether inaccurate image...
To do this he just ignores that the word broadsword has been in use for 1000 years and that both swords and the meaning of words have evolved over that time.
Odd. When I read his work, he doesn't ignore it. In fact, he seems to have evidence that the term has
not been in use for 1000 years. He spends an entire paragraph mentioning how experts of the Medieval period didn't use the term.
Do you have
evidence that contradicts this?
Language is an ever evolving thing, yes. But don't get all huffy when someone with expertise in a particular area tries to make it cleaner and more precise. Without clarification and reinforcement of "proper" language, we'd have terrible difficulty trying to understand each other.
Instead he just dogmatically asserts a "correct" definition, and beat on people who don't agree.
Wow, where do you see "beating on"? I see no "beating". No berating, no belittling, no nothing. He simply states, "In and after the Victorian Era, authors used the word to mean X. When the term is originally used to mean Y."