Argyle King
Legend
As the title indicates, I've recently become a player in a D&D 4E campaign. While I have played the system, and at one time played it quite a bit, it's been quite a while since I've played it regularly. As such, I'm a little fuzzy on some of the rules. Any help would be appreciated. For what it's worth, the use of the 4E errata is hit or miss in the group I'm in. I'm aware that the new monster math and a few other things are being used, but I'm also aware that the group doesn't follow the errata very closely; as such, some parts of the game are functioning as they originally did.
Multiclassing
When I multiclass, do I gain any of the weapon and armor proficiencies of the second class?
Commander's Strike critical hit
Commander's Strike (warlord power) has the weapon keyword. As such, it would appear that if the attack granted is a critical hit that the weapon of the warlord would have it's critical property activated. Currently, the group has ruled that is the case, and that ruling does make sense to me, but I was curious if the question had ever been given a more official answer.
Telepathic communication and understanding
I've noticed that many players seem to believe having the ability to communicate telepathically automatically means they can understand everything without regard for language. To me, telepathy implies a method of speech, but does not necessarily imply a shared language. I don't view telepathy and mind reading as being necessarily the same thing. Even if someone were reading my mind, it seems reasonable that I could make myself think in a language they do not understand. What does telepathy actually allow in 4E? Automatic understanding of everything? ...or would the telepathic character still need to understand the language of the target?
Multiclassing
When I multiclass, do I gain any of the weapon and armor proficiencies of the second class?
Commander's Strike critical hit
Commander's Strike (warlord power) has the weapon keyword. As such, it would appear that if the attack granted is a critical hit that the weapon of the warlord would have it's critical property activated. Currently, the group has ruled that is the case, and that ruling does make sense to me, but I was curious if the question had ever been given a more official answer.
Telepathic communication and understanding
I've noticed that many players seem to believe having the ability to communicate telepathically automatically means they can understand everything without regard for language. To me, telepathy implies a method of speech, but does not necessarily imply a shared language. I don't view telepathy and mind reading as being necessarily the same thing. Even if someone were reading my mind, it seems reasonable that I could make myself think in a language they do not understand. What does telepathy actually allow in 4E? Automatic understanding of everything? ...or would the telepathic character still need to understand the language of the target?