GuardianLurker
Adventurer
I assume that said military actually farmed themselves, and didn't use slaves. Because, otherwise, that's not a whole lot different from the european feudal manor with its knights and serfs.Clay_More said:
So, the ancient Egyptians didn't have the separation between military & peasantry that existed later.
For our purposes, I think we'll need to account for slaves/serfs that work the farms. I'm not sure that's accounted for in the figures you quote.
The separation in Ancient Egypt between food-producing population to non-food producing population was actually 6:1. The Nile was bountiful and provided an ample supply of food. Many of those that were not counted amongst the food-producing population were slaves ...
A very important factor in an Demographical survey is the presence of slaves. Slaves supply a work force that can be sustained with a minimum of food and with cheap living quarters.
For purposes of dealing with slavery WRT to the base ratio, I think that it's probably safe to count them as 2/3 a person in terms of food consumption, to reflect their lower food intake.
After taking the slavery bit into account, what's the Egyptian ratio like? 7:1? 8:1?
Also, I think for our purposes (assuming people aren't modelling an Ancient campaign), we're probably more interested in the late pre-industrial stuff.