IcyCool
First Post
So, I was reading the description for gauntlets:
And I got to thinking. Just how does a gauntlet interact with a monk's unarmed strike?
My understanding of how it would work (and feel free to correct me here) is as follows:
Assume a 1st level human fighter, who doesn't have the Improved Unarmed Strike feat, is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he provokes an attack of opportunity, does 1d3+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and DR/cold iron.
Assume a 1st level human fighter, who does have the Improved Unarmed Strike feat, is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he doesn't provoke an attack of opportunity (because he is considered armed), does 1d3+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and DR/cold iron.
Assume a 1st level human monk is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he doesn't provoke an attack of opportunity (because he is considered armed), does 1d6+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and Dr/cold iron.
I'm not seeing anything in the Gauntlet description that denies that the above assumptions are true. Thoughts?
PHB said:Gauntlet: This metal glove protects your hands and lets you deal lethal damage rather than nonlethal damage with unarmed strikes. A strike with a gauntlet is otherwise considered an unarmed attack.
And I got to thinking. Just how does a gauntlet interact with a monk's unarmed strike?
My understanding of how it would work (and feel free to correct me here) is as follows:
Assume a 1st level human fighter, who doesn't have the Improved Unarmed Strike feat, is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he provokes an attack of opportunity, does 1d3+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and DR/cold iron.
Assume a 1st level human fighter, who does have the Improved Unarmed Strike feat, is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he doesn't provoke an attack of opportunity (because he is considered armed), does 1d3+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and DR/cold iron.
Assume a 1st level human monk is wearing +1 cold iron gauntlets. If he strikes with the gauntlets, he doesn't provoke an attack of opportunity (because he is considered armed), does 1d6+1 + Str mod damage, can do lethal damage, and overcomes DR/magic and Dr/cold iron.
I'm not seeing anything in the Gauntlet description that denies that the above assumptions are true. Thoughts?