It seems like you're mixing up traditional applications of moral principles in society--which appears to be what you're calling ethics--with morals here. The exact definition of cold blooded murder and the proceedures for dealing with it are usually a matter of law and custom. When there is significant divergence between a peoples' understanding of justice in this matter and the legal/ethical (in your sense) understanding of it, there's usually a lot of outrage. There's not any sense
I could be wrong, and that is why I retrack them as an example, from now on I will just use the old culutre A. and culture B. you learn to use in logic classes.
It's safer to do so but actually less informative. It's very easy to create a culture A and a culture B to match any point you wish to illustrate. But if culture A and culture B don't actually exist, the relevance of the illustration is dubious. For instance, one could concoct a story of a successful, empire building matriarchal culture in order to demonstrate that there was no particular cultural-success value to patriarchy. However, since there actually aren't any such cultures (that I'm aware of--and there certainly aren't any to compare to China, Japan, Greece, Rome, Babylon, the Zulus, the Aztecs, the Iriquois, etc) the culture A/culture B example would be quite misleading to say the least.
Actually this is pretyt much my point, *modern* translations do take this look because we as a society have matured. If you go back and look historically you will still see that they backed up the previous definition with full force. Just because modern translations have toned this down to reflect civilized law does not mitigate the past. The ten commandments, for a very long time, were *very* cut and dried in the christian faith. The jeweish faith has always been a bit softer on some points and harder on others, that is what makes the two faiths different and interesting.
I don't think I'm misunderstanding your point here. I'm disagreeing with it. Modern translations of the Bible don't say "you shall not murder" rather than "you shall not kill" because modern society has matured. They say it because it is a more accurate rendition of the original language. Historical christian teaching bears out the understanding carried in modern translations rather than the King James (murder) translation as well, demonstrating that this isn't an after the fact claim but one that was understood all along. An understanding of the probition as against murder rather than killing undergirds traditional Just War theory (which can be contrasted with some anabaptist teachings upon the subject) as well as the historical understanding of the justice of capital punishment (to which Justice Scalia referred a year or so in defending his position against anti-death penalty catholics).
The Ten Commandments aren't easy to follow (in fact, the New Testament claims that it's impossible to follow the law--hence the need for atonement) and are quite cut and dried in many ways. But they're not unsophisticated in the way you're portraying them.
One problem here is using christianity as a broad category which I make the mistake of a lot too (evne in this post). I am sure I did not communicate well in my other post, and when I really get into a debate online that is one of my failures. In real life the back and forth nature of conversation helps one refine a point but on here you just plow ahead for a few paragraphs and most of don't go back over things to read them and take time in editing. Fundamental christianity tend to look at sin and being sin as being sin, much the same way some japanese traditions do.
I'm somewhat dubious about this assertion, seeing as there is a big difference between the turn of the (19th) century fundamentalist movement and modern American evangelicalism (to which I'm guessing you're referring--these days "fundamentalist" just means someone a liberal theologian or journalist doesn't like--which is about the only way it could be used as it often is to lump a pentecostal like Pat Robertson together with the Southern Baptists or Dallas Theological Seminary). And I know that both the pentecostal and the baptist traditions take seriously the idea that, for instance, teachers are judged more severely than ordinary believers. (Sin is all wrong qua sin but some merits more severe punishment than others--unless the sinner repents and is forgiven; just because it's all wrong qua sin doesn't mean it's all the same). However, I am curious about the Japanese traditions you're referring to. I'm interested to hear of analogous concepts in other cultures. (And to find out to what extent they are actually similar).
Whether we think god will forgive this sin easier than that one is up to god to decide and is out of our hands. It really doesn't matter what our fellow man thinks, he is not the arbiter of sin.
Quite right but it still rather tells against the idea that breaking any part of the code is the same as breaking any other part. If God punishes one more severely than the other and people think of one more harshly than the other, it stands to reason that, whether the law judges one more harshly than the other or not, what you are distinguishing as morality does indeed admit degrees of wrongness as well as degrees of commendability (as one might see, for instance in the notion of a saint vs an ordinary good man or the idea of someone doing something "beyond the call of duty.")
This is also demonstrated by the fact that one may often think a law unjust in punishing crimes disproportionately--as in the case of Jean Valjean in Les Mis. Were there no degrees of culpability in morality but that could only the law and cultural practices in which we or he lived, there would be no independent standpoint from which the law could be judged as too harsh.
Law, however, makes what our fellow man thinks *matter* whether it is a jury, a king, a potentate or whomever. If that person thinks there are mitigating circumstance then it is within his right to either hand it up the ladder or, in certain stages, outright lessen penalties. This is what I was trying to get at. Morality is above and beyond humanity, it rests in a power/concept/deity and not in the hands of the people living by it.
If morality is divine or Absolute or natural law and ethics is supposed to be human laws and customs then that's an understandable distinction, but it makes no sense to claim that the application of morality is necessarily more cut and dried or less sophisticated than human law. If the salient difference is the sphere in which the claims are judged and the nature of the judge, then it seems to make more sense to me to say that what sophistication we have in human law is (ideally really but only ostensibly in practice) in an effort to mirror the divine/Absolute/natural law.
Ethics is that line we walk that decides how much we can bend or warp absolute law (usually anyway, there are systems like draconian law and legalism (chinese) which pretty much state that ethics are only valid if they hold as close to the absolute law as they can).
Which seems to blow the morals are unsophisticated and admit no degrees of rightness or wrongness but ethics are sophisticated and admit both degrees and mercy thesis out of the water.